Nursing Elites

1. During a staff meeting, a nurse is discussing the purpose of regulatory agencies. Which of the following tasks should the nurse identify as the responsibility of state licensing boards?

• A. Monitoring evidence-based practice for clients with specific diagnoses.
• B. Ensuring that health care providers comply with regulations.
• C. Setting quality standards for accrediting health care facilities.
• D. Determining the safety of medications for administration to clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: State licensing boards are primarily responsible for ensuring that health care providers comply with regulations. This includes overseeing licensure requirements, investigating complaints, and enforcing disciplinary actions. Monitoring evidence-based practice for clients with specific diagnoses is typically within the domain of professional organizations or healthcare institutions. Setting quality standards for accrediting health care facilities is usually the role of accrediting bodies such as The Joint Commission. Lastly, determining the safety of medications for administration to clients falls under the purview of regulatory agencies like the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.

3. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare a sterile field. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse identify as contaminating the sterile field?

• A. The nurse opens the sterile field on a wet surface.
• B. The nurse turns away from the sterile field.
• C. The nurse uses a non-sterile glove to touch the sterile field.
• D. The nurse touches the edge of the sterile drape with her hand.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Opening the sterile field on a wet surface contaminates it, rendering it unsafe for use. Moisture can carry microorganisms that can compromise the sterility of the field. Choice B is incorrect because turning away from the sterile field alone does not necessarily contaminate it unless the nurse touches non-sterile items. Choice C is incorrect because using a non-sterile glove to touch the sterile field directly introduces contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as touching the edge of the sterile drape with a hand may not necessarily contaminate the entire field, unlike opening it on a wet surface.

4. The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?

• A. Feet
• B. Nail beds
• C. Perineum
• D. Oral cavity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.

5. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

• A. A mole with an asymmetrical appearance.
• B. A mole with a regular border.
• C. A mole that is the same color throughout.
• D. A mole that is smaller than 6mm in diameter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.

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