is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age
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HESI Maternal Newborn

1. Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.

2. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

3. During which of the following periods does the development of arms and legs occur in a pregnancy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The development of arms and legs occurs during the critical period of the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy. This timeframe is crucial for the formation of limbs and other key body parts. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the development of the lungs, heart, and stomach respectively occurs at different stages of fetal development and is not primarily associated with the fourth to eighth weeks of pregnancy.

4. In the Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool, the nurse determines that a 15-month-old infant has a gestational age of 42 weeks. Based on this finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late preterm infants, such as those with a gestational age of 42 weeks, are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to immature metabolic regulation. Monitoring capillary blood glucose is crucial to detect and manage hypoglycemia promptly. Providing blow-by oxygen (Choice A) is not indicated for an infant at risk for hypoglycemia. Drawing arterial blood gases (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for assessing hypoglycemia. Applying a pulse oximeter to the foot (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring blood glucose levels in this context.

5. A client in the transition phase of labor reports a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the transition phase of labor, a client may experience intense back pain due to the pressure of the baby descending. Applying counterpressure to the client's sacrum can help alleviate this discomfort. Effleurage is a light stroking massage technique that may not provide adequate relief for intense back pain. Patterned-paced breathing is beneficial for managing contractions but may not directly address back pain. Biofeedback is a technique that helps individuals gain awareness and control of certain physiological functions, but it may not be the most appropriate intervention for acute labor pain.

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