Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for an infant with a tentative diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS). What is most important for the nurse to assess?

• A. Quality of the cry
• B. Signs of dehydration
• C. Coughing up feedings
• D. Characteristics of the stool

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Signs of dehydration. Infants with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) are at high risk of dehydration due to frequent vomiting. Assessing for signs of dehydration, such as decreased urine output, dry mucous membranes, and sunken fontanelles, is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, C, and D are not the most critical assessments for HPS. The quality of the cry (choice A) may not provide as much relevant information in this case. Coughing up of feedings (choice C) may be a symptom but is not as crucial as assessing for dehydration. Characteristics of the stool (choice D) are important but assessing for signs of dehydration takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the infant's health.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing a presentation to a local community group about genetic disorders and the types of congenital anomalies that can occur. What would the professional include as a major congenital anomaly?

• A. Overlapping digits
• B. Polydactyly
• C. Umbilical hernia
• D. Cleft palate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cleft palate is considered a major congenital anomaly due to its significant impact on feeding, speech, and overall health. Overlapping digits (Option A) are a physical anomaly but not typically considered a major congenital anomaly. Polydactyly (Option B) refers to having extra fingers or toes, which is a congenital anomaly but not as major as a cleft palate. Umbilical hernia (Option C) involves a protrusion of abdominal contents through the umbilical ring but is not typically classified as a major congenital anomaly compared to cleft palate.

3. On the third day of hospitalization, the nurse observes that a 2-year-old toddler who had been screaming and crying inconsolably begins to regress and is now lying quietly in the crib with a blanket. What stage of separation anxiety has developed?

• A. Denial
• B. Despair
• C. Mistrust
• D. Rejection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Despair. In separation anxiety, the stage of despair is characterized by regression and withdrawal after an initial period of protest. The child may become quiet and appear to accept the separation, but this is actually a sign of deeper distress. Choice A, Denial, is incorrect as it refers to refusing to believe or accept the reality of the separation. Choice C, Mistrust, is incorrect as it pertains to a lack of trust in others, not a stage of separation anxiety. Choice D, Rejection, is incorrect as it involves pushing others away and not related to the described behavior of the toddler in the scenario.

4. The nurse closely monitors the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The purpose of this assessment is to detect an early sign of which possible complication?

• A. infection
• B. hypertension
• C. encephalopathy
• D. edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is crucial to detect early signs of infection. Infection is a common complication in nephrotic syndrome, and fever can be an early indicator. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome. Encephalopathy (choice C) is a neurological complication and would present with altered mental status rather than a change in temperature. Edema (choice D) is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome but is not typically monitored through temperature assessment.

5. A group of students is reviewing information about the various types of insulin used to treat type 1 diabetes. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of these insulins as having the longest duration?

• A. Lispro
• B. Regular
• C. NPH
• D. Glargine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus) as it has the longest duration of action among the insulins listed, lasting 12 to 24 hours. Lispro (A) and Regular (B) are rapid-acting insulins with shorter durations of action. NPH (C) is an intermediate-acting insulin with a duration of action of about 12-16 hours. Therefore, Glargine is the correct choice for the insulin with the longest duration.

Similar Questions