HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions
1. During an oral cavity assessment of a 6-month-old infant, the parent inquires about which teeth will erupt first. How should the healthcare provider respond?
- A. Incisors
- B. Canines
- C. Upper molars
- D. Lower molars
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Incisors are the teeth that typically erupt first in infants, usually around 6 months of age. These teeth play a crucial role in biting and cutting food. Canines, upper molars, and lower molars are not the primary teeth to erupt in infants. Canines usually erupt after incisors, while molars, whether upper or lower, come in later during the teething process.
2. What is an important nursing consideration for a child with a diagnosis of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) being treated with methotrexate?
- A. Monitor liver function tests regularly
- B. Encourage regular exercise
- C. Provide high-calorie snacks
- D. Encourage frequent handwashing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring liver function tests regularly is crucial when a child with JIA is on methotrexate due to the potential hepatotoxicity associated with this medication. Methotrexate can lead to liver damage, hence monitoring helps in early detection and intervention. Encouraging regular exercise (Choice B) is generally good for children with JIA to maintain joint mobility and muscle strength, but it is not directly related to methotrexate therapy. Providing high-calorie snacks (Choice C) is not a priority consideration for a child on methotrexate. Encouraging frequent handwashing (Choice D) is important for infection control, but it is not specifically associated with methotrexate therapy in a child with JIA.
3. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
- B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
- C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
- D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta are the cardiac defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. In Tetralogy of Fallot, these specific abnormalities contribute to the classic features of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries, not Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D mentions an altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which is not a defining characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot.
4. A child is admitted with extensive burns. The nurse notes burns on the child’s lips and singed nasal hairs. The nurse should suspect that the child has a(n)
- A. chemical burn
- B. inhalation injury
- C. electrical burn
- D. hot-water scald
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Burns on the lips and singed nasal hairs are indicative of an inhalation injury. This suggests that the child has likely inhaled hot gases or smoke, leading to damage in the respiratory tract. Choice A, chemical burn, is incorrect because the symptoms described are more aligned with inhalation rather than direct contact with chemicals. Choice C, electrical burn, is incorrect as there are no mentions of contact with an electrical source. Choice D, hot-water scald, is also incorrect as the presentation of burns on the lips and singed nasal hairs is not characteristic of scald injuries.
5. An 8-year-old child with the diagnosis of meningitis is to have a lumbar puncture. What should the nurse explain is the purpose of this procedure?
- A. To measure the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid
- B. To obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis
- C. To relieve intracranial pressure
- D. To assess the presence of infection in the spinal fluid
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. This sample helps in diagnosing conditions such as meningitis by evaluating the presence of pathogens or abnormalities in the cerebrospinal fluid. Measuring the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid (Choice A) is not the main objective of a lumbar puncture, although it can be done during the procedure. Relieving intracranial pressure (Choice C) is not the direct purpose of a lumbar puncture, as other interventions are typically used for this purpose. Assessing the presence of infection in the spinal fluid (Choice D) is related to the overall goal of obtaining a sample for analysis, making it a secondary outcome of the procedure.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access