Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has full-thickness burns on his leg. The client expresses concern about his future. Which of the following is a therapeutic response by the nurse?

• A. “You’re concerned about what will happen when you leave the hospital?”
• B. “If you work hard on your physical therapy, you won’t need to worry.”
• C. “You shouldn’t worry about the future so you can concentrate on getting well.”
• D. “Why are you concerned even though everyone is here to help you?”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A, “You’re concerned about what will happen when you leave the hospital?” This response acknowledges the client's concerns about the future, validating their feelings and encouraging open communication. It shows empathy and allows the client to express their worries. Choice B minimizes the client's concerns by suggesting that they won't need to worry if they work hard on physical therapy, which may invalidate their emotions. Choice C dismisses the client's worry, implying that they should ignore their concerns to focus on getting well. Choice D uses a confrontational approach by questioning the client's concerns, which may discourage open communication and make the client feel defensive.

2. A client with a terminal illness and approaching death has noisy respirations and is short of breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
• B. Administer an opioid medication
• C. Perform oral suctioning
• D. Place the client in a prone position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the client's bed is the most appropriate action in this situation. It helps reduce noisy respirations and improves comfort for clients with terminal illnesses by facilitating better air exchange. Administering an opioid medication may not address the immediate issue of noisy respirations and shortness of breath caused by secretions in the airway. Performing oral suctioning without proper assessment and indication can be uncomfortable for the client and may not be necessary. Placing the client in a prone position can further compromise breathing and is not recommended for a client with respiratory distress.

3. A client is receiving morphine via PCA infusion device after abdominal surgery. Which of the following statements indicates that the client knows how to use the device?

• A. I'll wait to use the device until it's absolutely necessary.
• B. I'll be careful about pushing the button too much to avoid an overdose.
• C. I should tell the nurse if the pain doesn't stop while I am using this device.
• D. I will ask my adult child to push the dose button when I am sleeping.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it demonstrates that the client understands the importance of communicating with the nurse if the pain persists while using the PCA device. This is crucial as it ensures proper pain management and monitoring. Choices A and B are incorrect because delaying the use of the device until necessary or being cautious about pushing the button too much do not necessarily reflect understanding of using the PCA device effectively. Choice D is incorrect as having someone else, like an adult child, push the dose button goes against the principle of the client self-administering the medication through the PCA device.

4. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.

5. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

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