Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 6 hours old and has a bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/dL. The newborn’s mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood sample for a serum glucose level
• B. Feed the newborn immediately
• C. Administer 50 mL of dextrose solution IV
• D. Reassess the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A bedside glucometer reading of 65 mg/dL is within the normal range for a newborn. Reassessing the blood glucose level prior to the next feeding ensures ongoing monitoring without unnecessary intervention. Obtaining a blood sample for a serum glucose level (Choice A) is not necessary as the initial reading is normal. Feeding the newborn immediately (Choice B) may not be indicated and could lead to unnecessary interventions. Administering dextrose solution IV (Choice C) is not warranted as the glucose level is within the normal range and does not require immediate correction.

2. Preconception counseling is crucial for the safe management of diabetic pregnancies. Which complication is commonly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy?

• A. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia
• B. Congenital anomalies in the fetus
• C. Hydramnios
• D. Hyperemesis gravidarum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Preconception counseling is essential as strict metabolic control before conception and in the early weeks of gestation helps reduce the risk of congenital anomalies. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia usually occur during the first trimester due to hormonal changes, affecting insulin production and use, rather than before conception. Hydramnios is more common in diabetic pregnancies, typically seen in the third trimester, not during early pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum, although it may lead to hypoglycemic events, is related to decreased food intake and glucose transfer to the fetus, exacerbating hypoglycemia rather than being directly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy.

3. A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Clindamycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.

4. A newborn is being assessed following a forceps-assisted birth. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse identify as a complication of the birth method?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Polycythemia
• C. Facial Palsy
• D. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Facial palsy is a known complication of forceps-assisted birth. During forceps delivery, pressure applied to the facial nerve can result in facial palsy. The newborn may present with weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles on one side. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is not directly related to forceps-assisted birth. Polycythemia (Choice B) is a condition characterized by an increased number of red blood cells and is not typically associated with forceps delivery. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (Choice D) is a lung condition that primarily affects premature infants who require mechanical ventilation and prolonged oxygen therapy, not a direct outcome of forceps-assisted birth.

5. A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
• B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
• C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
• D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.

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