Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:

• A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
• B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
• C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
• D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.

2. A female victim of sexual assault is being seen in the crisis center. The client states that she still feels 'as though the rape just happened yesterday,' even though it has been a few months since the incident. The appropriate nursing response is which of the following?

• A. You need to try to be realistic. The rape did not just occur.
• B. It will take some time to get over these feelings about your rape.
• C. Tell me more about the incident that causes you to feel like the rape just occurred.
• D. What do you think you can do to alleviate some of your fears about being raped again?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to talk about the event that makes them feel as though the rape just occurred. This approach can help the client process their feelings and experiences, which is crucial in dealing with trauma. Choice A is dismissive and negates the client's feelings, which can be harmful. Choice B, although acknowledging the time needed to heal, does not actively address the client's current feelings. Choice D shifts the focus to future fears rather than addressing the client's current emotional state.

3. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing a flashback. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the trauma.
• B. Help the client to focus on the present.
• C. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication.
• D. Leave the client alone to work through the flashback.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action is to help the client focus on the present (B), which can reduce the intensity of the flashback. Encouraging discussion of the trauma (A) should be done when the client is not actively experiencing a flashback. While medication (C) may be necessary, it is not the first priority in this situation. Leaving the client alone (D) is not appropriate as they need support to manage the flashback.

4. The charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of care for a client who is very depressed. What is the most important intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after the client's admission to the unit?

• A. Monitor appetite and observe intake during meals.
• B. Maintain safety in the client's environment.
• C. Provide ongoing, supportive contact.
• D. Encourage participation in activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after admitting a depressed client is to maintain safety (B). Depression increases the risk of suicide; hence ensuring a safe environment is the priority. While monitoring appetite (A), providing supportive contact (C), and encouraging participation in activities (D) are important aspects of care for a depressed client, ensuring safety takes precedence in the initial phase of admission.

5. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Excessive work activity.
• B. Decreased need for sleep.
• C. Medication management.
• D. Inflated self-esteem.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority is to manage the client's medication adherence to prevent escalation of manic behavior. Inflated self-esteem is the highest priority as it indicates the client's potential for harmful behaviors due to lack of medication compliance. While excessive work activity and decreased need for sleep are characteristics of mania, they are not as immediately concerning as the risk of harm related to inflated self-esteem.

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