HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. Which of the following methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A. Subcutaneous
- B. Intramuscular
- C. IV bolus only
- D. IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV bolus, followed by continuous infusion. In the initial treatment of hyperglycemia in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, insulin is administered via IV bolus to quickly reduce blood glucose levels, followed by a continuous infusion to maintain control. Subcutaneous and intramuscular routes are not used in this situation as they are not rapid or predictable enough to address the acute hyperglycemia seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. IV bolus alone without the continuous infusion may not provide sustained control of blood glucose levels, making choice C incorrect.
2. Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics that the nurse should monitor for in patients?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypertension
- C. Constipation
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of opioid analgesics due to the slowing of gastrointestinal motility. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased peristalsis and increased water absorption, resulting in constipation. Monitoring for constipation is crucial to prevent discomfort or complications like bowel obstruction. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect of opioid analgesics. Hypertension (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not typically associated with opioid use.
3. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
- B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
- C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
- D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta are the cardiac defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. In Tetralogy of Fallot, these specific abnormalities contribute to the classic features of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries, not Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D mentions an altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which is not a defining characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot.
4. A nurse working on an endocrine unit should see which client first?
- A. An adolescent male with diabetes who is arguing about his insulin dose.
- B. An older client with Addison’s disease whose current blood sugar level is 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l).
- C. An adult with a blood sugar of 384mg/dl (21.31mmol/l) and urine output of 350 ml in the last hour.
- D. A client taking corticosteroids who has become disoriented in the last two hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with Addison’s disease and a blood sugar level of 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l) is experiencing hypoglycemia, which can progress to adrenal crisis. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D, although concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with Addison’s disease and hypoglycemia. The adolescent arguing about his insulin dose can be addressed after stabilizing the client with Addison’s disease. The adult with high blood sugar and increased urine output may have hyperglycemia but is not in immediate danger. The client taking corticosteroids who is disoriented needs evaluation but is not in an acute life-threatening condition as the client with hypoglycemia.
5. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about the cognitive development at this age?
- A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas
- B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts
- C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective
- D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct answer: At the age of 10, children are in the stage of concrete operational thought, where they can think logically and organize facts. Choice A is incorrect as simple associations of ideas are more characteristic of earlier developmental stages. Choice C is incorrect as while children at this age are developing perspective-taking skills, their interpretations are not solely limited to their own perspective. Choice D is incorrect as while previous experiences influence their thinking, the ability to think logically and organize facts is more prominent in this stage of cognitive development.