HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client is receiving a blood transfusion. The client reports flank pain, and the nurse notes reddish-brown urine in the client's urinary catheter bag. The nurse recognizes these manifestations as which of the following types of transfusion reactions?
- A. Hemolytic
- B. Allergic
- C. Febrile
- D. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemolytic. Hemolytic reactions can lead to flank pain and hemoglobinuria, as the body breaks down the transfused red blood cells. In hemolytic reactions, the immune system attacks and destroys the transfused red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream and urine. This results in reddish-brown urine, indicating hemoglobinuria. Allergic reactions typically present with symptoms like itching, hives, or rash. Febrile reactions are characterized by fever, chills, and rigors. TRALI is a rare but serious transfusion reaction that manifests as acute respiratory distress following a transfusion, not flank pain and hemoglobinuria.
2. During an admission assessment of an older adult client, a nurse should identify which of the following findings as a potential indication of abuse?
- A. Bruises on the arms in various stages of healing
- B. Recent weight gain
- C. Complaints of joint pain
- D. Frequent visits to different providers
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bruises on the arms in various stages of healing should be identified as a potential indication of abuse in an older adult. These bruises may suggest physical harm or neglect, which are concerning signs of abuse. Recent weight gain (Choice B) is not typically associated with abuse and can have various causes, such as dietary changes or health conditions. Complaints of joint pain (Choice C) are more likely related to musculoskeletal issues rather than abuse. Frequent visits to different providers (Choice D) could indicate seeking multiple opinions or healthcare needs and do not necessarily point to abuse.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for morphine 5mg IM but accidentally administers the entire 10mg from the single-dose vial. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Complete an incident report
- B. Measure the client’s respiratory rate
- C. Report the incident to the pharmacy
- D. Notify the client's provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the client's respiratory rate is the priority in this situation as overdosing on morphine can lead to respiratory depression, making it crucial to monitor the client's breathing. Completing an incident report (choice A) is important but should not be the first action. Reporting the incident to the pharmacy (choice C) and notifying the client's provider (choice D) are necessary steps but assessing the client's respiratory status takes precedence to ensure immediate safety and intervention.
5. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?
- A. I have problems with diarrhea.
- B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
- C. I have diminished sexual function.
- D. I often feel jittery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.
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