Nursing Elites

1. A client is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discuss the risk factors for colorectal cancer.
• B. Focus teaching on addressing the client's anger and emotional response.
• C. Provide the client with emotional support and reassurance about his feelings.
• D. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During the anger stage of grief, it is essential for the nurse to reassure the client that anger is a normal reaction to a cancer diagnosis. This validation of the client's emotions can help in providing emotional support. Choice A is incorrect because discussing risk factors for colorectal cancer does not address the client's current emotional state. Choice B is incorrect because focusing teaching on the client's future management does not directly address the client's need for emotional support in the present. Choice C is incorrect because providing written information about loss and grief phases is not as immediately comforting as directly reassuring the client about his feelings of anger.

2. The nurse is working on an orthopedic rehabilitation unit that requires lifting and positioning of patients. Which personal injury will the nurse most likely try to prevent?

• A. Arm
• B. Hip
• C. Back
• D. Ankle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Back. Back injuries are common among healthcare workers, especially nurses, due to improper lifting techniques and bending. Working on an orthopedic rehabilitation unit involves frequent lifting and positioning of patients, putting the nurse at risk of back injuries. Preventing back injuries is crucial for maintaining the nurse's health and ability to provide care effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while lifting and positioning patients may involve these body parts, back injuries are most likely to occur due to the strain and stress placed on the back during such activities.

3. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?

• A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
• B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
• C. A notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner
• D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, when a client arrives unconscious, priority should be given to a notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner. Advance directives are legal documents that specify a person's healthcare wishes and decision-making preferences in advance. These directives guide healthcare providers in delivering care according to the client's preferences when the client is unable to communicate. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) are important but do not provide specific care instructions. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) may not reflect the client's wishes. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are valuable but do not address the individualized care preferences of the client.

4. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Crackles in the lungs
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Hepatomegaly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of left-sided heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing gas exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening respiratory function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is a common finding in heart failure but may not be as acutely concerning as pulmonary congestion. Jugular vein distention is associated with right-sided heart failure, not left-sided heart failure. Hepatomegaly is often seen in liver conditions and right-sided heart failure, not specifically left-sided heart failure.

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