HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client is being treated for pneumonia and is receiving intravenous antibiotics. The nurse notes that the client has developed a rash and is complaining of itching. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
- A. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- B. Discontinue the antibiotic infusion
- C. Apply a cool compress to the rash
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate initial nursing action when a client develops a rash and itching while receiving intravenous antibiotics is to discontinue the antibiotic infusion. This is crucial to prevent further allergic reactions. Administering diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice A) can be considered after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion. Applying a cool compress to the rash (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should come after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion to ensure the client's safety.
2. An assistive personnel tells the nurse, 'I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can I just use the regular cuff if I can get it to stay on?' The nurse replies that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is:
- A. Low
- B. High
- C. Inaccurate
- D. Unaffected
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using a regular blood pressure cuff on a morbidly obese client will lead to a falsely high blood pressure reading. This occurs because the cuff is not appropriately sized for the client's arm circumference, resulting in increased pressure on the artery and an inaccurate high reading. Choice A is incorrect because the reading will be falsely high, not low. Choice C is incorrect as the reading will not be accurate with an incorrectly sized cuff. Choice D is incorrect because the reading will be affected by using the wrong cuff size.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 83 gtt/min
- B. 125 gtt/min
- C. 100 gtt/min
- D. 75 gtt/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL ÷ 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.
4. A child is injured on the school playground and appears to have a fractured leg. What action should the school nurse take first?
- A. Call for emergency transport to the hospital
- B. Immobilize the limb and joints above and below the injury
- C. Assess the child and the extent of the injury
- D. Apply cold compresses to the injured area
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the school nurse to take when a child is injured and appears to have a fractured leg is to assess the child and the extent of the injury. This initial assessment is crucial to determine the severity of the injury before proceeding with further interventions. Option A, calling for emergency transport, should only be done after assessing the extent of the injury. Option B, immobilizing the limb and joints, is important but should come after the initial assessment. Option D, applying cold compresses, is not recommended for suspected fractures as it can exacerbate swelling and pain.
5. The nurse is discharging an adult woman who was hospitalized for 6 days for treatment of pneumonia. While the nurse is reviewing the prescribed medications, the client appears anxious. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Instruct the client to repeat the medication plan
- B. Encourage the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug
- C. Provide written instructions that are easy to follow
- D. Include a family member in the teaching session
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Including a family member in the teaching session is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this scenario. By involving a family member, the nurse can ensure that there is additional support and reinforcement of the medication plan. This can help the client and family better understand and adhere to the prescribed medications, reducing the client's anxiety. Instructing the client to repeat the medication plan (Choice A) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Encouraging the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug (Choice B) should not be the first intervention without exploring other supportive measures. Providing written instructions (Choice C) alone may not offer the immediate support and reassurance needed for the anxious client.
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