Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated for pneumonia and is receiving intravenous antibiotics. The nurse notes that the client has developed a rash and is complaining of itching. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

• A. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Discontinue the antibiotic infusion
• C. Apply a cool compress to the rash
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial nursing action when a client develops a rash and itching while receiving intravenous antibiotics is to discontinue the antibiotic infusion. This is crucial to prevent further allergic reactions. Administering diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice A) can be considered after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion. Applying a cool compress to the rash (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should come after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion to ensure the client's safety.

2. A client is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider about reducing the adverse effects of immobility. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will perform ankle and knee exercises every hour - Range of motion (ROM) is needed to prevent contractures.
• B. I will hold my breath when rising from a sitting position.
• C. I will remove my antiembolic stockings while I am in bed.
• D. I will have my partner help me change positions every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because performing ankle and knee exercises every hour helps prevent contractures and other adverse effects of immobility. Contractures are a common complication of immobility, and range of motion (ROM) exercises can help maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Holding the breath when rising from a sitting position can increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, not reduce adverse effects of immobility. Removing antiembolic stockings while in bed can compromise their effectiveness in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is not a measure to reduce immobility-related complications. Having a partner help change positions every 4 hours may not be frequent enough to prevent immobility-related complications effectively; changing positions more frequently is usually recommended to prevent issues like pressure ulcers and muscle stiffness.

3. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, what should be the next action by the nurse?

• A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
• B. Limit contact with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
• C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
• D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor. By doing so, the nurse can address their emotions professionally and seek guidance on how to manage the situation effectively. This approach allows the nurse to receive support and potentially gain insights on how to navigate interactions with the manipulative client. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues causing the reluctance and can impact the quality of care provided. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client directly about negative behaviors may escalate the situation and harm the therapeutic relationship. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario; it is essential to address the nurse's feelings first before considering behavior modification plans.

4. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

• A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
• B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
• C. Morphine 2 mg IV
• D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

5. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Assess the client's urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the LPN/LVN to take when a client with a history of diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps assess the severity of hyperglycemia and guides further interventions. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms by further diluting the blood glucose concentration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) should be done based on the healthcare provider's orders and after assessing the blood glucose levels. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario.

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