Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated for pneumonia and is receiving intravenous antibiotics. The nurse notes that the client has developed a rash and is complaining of itching. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

• A. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Discontinue the antibiotic infusion
• C. Apply a cool compress to the rash
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial nursing action when a client develops a rash and itching while receiving intravenous antibiotics is to discontinue the antibiotic infusion. This is crucial to prevent further allergic reactions. Administering diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice A) can be considered after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion. Applying a cool compress to the rash (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should come after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion to ensure the client's safety.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick to determine the urine's specific gravity. The healthcare professional knows the result will indicate the amount of:

• A. Solutes in the urine
• B. Bacteria in the urine
• C. pH level of the urine
• D. Glucose in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine. Choice B, bacteria in the urine, is incorrect because specific gravity does not measure bacterial presence. Choice C, pH level of the urine, is incorrect as it refers to the acidity or alkalinity of the urine, not its specific gravity. Choice D, glucose in the urine, is incorrect as specific gravity does not directly measure glucose levels in urine.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is receiving metformin (Glucophage). Which laboratory test should the LPN/LVN monitor while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Renal function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver function tests. While a client is taking metformin, monitoring liver function tests is crucial to assess for potential hepatic side effects. Metformin is primarily eliminated by the liver, and monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver-related complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) is not specifically required for monitoring metformin therapy. Serum electrolytes are not directly impacted by metformin, making it less relevant for monitoring this medication. Renal function tests are important for some other diabetes medications, but in the case of metformin, liver function tests take precedence due to its hepatic metabolism.

5. During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon’s office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?

• A. “I’d prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife.”
• B. “I understand the surgery won’t proceed unless I fill out these forms.”
• C. “I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine.”
• D. “I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.

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