a nurse caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Fundamentals HESI

1. A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.

2. During an admission assessment for an older adult client, what is the priority action for the nurse after gathering data and reviewing systems?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse after completing the assessment and review of systems for an older adult client is to orient them to their room. This is crucial for ensuring the client's comfort and safety in the new environment. While reviewing medical prescriptions and developing a plan of care are important aspects of the admission process, they can be done after the client has been oriented to their room.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.

5. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.

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