Nursing Elites

1. When administering an otic medication to an older adult client, which action should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

• A. Press gently on the tragus of the client's ear
• B. Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the client's ear canal
• C. Move the client's auricle down and back toward their head
• D. Tilt the client's head backward for 5 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to ensure that otic medication reaches the inner ear is to press gently on the tragus. The tragus is a small cartilaginous projection in front of the ear canal. Pressing on it helps to straighten the ear canal, allowing the medication to reach the inner ear. Packing cotton or moving the auricle can obstruct the ear canal and prevent proper medication delivery. Tilting the client's head backward is not necessary and may not facilitate the medication reaching the inner ear as effectively as pressing on the tragus.

2. A client postoperative expresses pain during dressing changes. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes before changing the client’s dressing.
• B. Change the dressing less frequently.
• C. Apply a topical anesthetic before removing the dressing.
• D. Use a non-adherent dressing to reduce pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before changing the dressing is the priority action as it will help alleviate the client's pain and improve comfort. Choice B, changing the dressing less frequently, may hinder proper wound care and healing. Applying a topical anesthetic (choice C) might offer some relief but systemic pain medication is more effective. Using a non-adherent dressing (choice D) can reduce pain during dressing changes, but addressing immediate pain with medication is the most appropriate intervention in this case.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Barrel chest
• B. Clubbing of the fingers
• C. Cough with sputum production
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD. It indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Barrel chest is a common physical characteristic in individuals with COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs but is not as acutely concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Clubbing of the fingers is a late sign of chronic hypoxia and is often seen in conditions with prolonged hypoxemia but is not as acute as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production is a common symptom in COPD due to excess mucus production but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress as the use of accessory muscles does.

4. At 0100 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Stay with the client and offer assistance with relaxation techniques
• B. Assess the client's pain level and administer pain medication if needed
• C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
• D. Encourage the client to engage in a quiet, non-stimulating activity until feeling sleepy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 0100 on the client's second postoperative night, the nurse should address the client's inability to sleep. Providing a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic is appropriate in this situation to help the client rest. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the room and closing the door does not directly address the client's sleep concern. Choice B is not the priority at this moment since the client's main issue is insomnia, not pain. Choice D, while encouraging a non-stimulating activity, does not provide immediate relief for the client's sleeplessness as a sedative-hypnotic would.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?

• A. Early decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Accelerations
• D. Moderate variability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.

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