a nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy collar as the nurse is performing tracheal suctioning the clients heart rate and oxygen saturati
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank

1. A client with a tracheostomy collar has a decrease in heart rate and oxygen saturation during tracheal suctioning. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue suctioning. Suctioning should be stopped immediately to prevent further decrease in heart rate and oxygen saturation. Elevating the head of the bed may help with oxygenation, but the priority is to stop the suctioning procedure. Removing the inner cannula or irrigating the stoma are not appropriate actions and could worsen the client's condition.

2. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

3. When planning care for a newly admitted elderly client who is severely dehydrated, which task is appropriate to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Assigning the UAP to report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and does not involve making clinical assessments or decisions. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of clinical judgment and training. Choice A requires assessing mucous membranes, which is beyond the UAP's scope. Choice C involves assessing movement ability, which requires more specialized training. Choice D involves assessing skin turgor, which also requires a higher level of clinical judgment.

4. A client is receiving continuous IV fluid therapy via a peripheral vein in the left forearm. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed phlebitis at the IV site?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema (redness) along the path of the vein is a classic sign of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. This occurs due to irritation or infection at the IV site. Pitting edema (choice B) is not typically associated with phlebitis but suggests fluid overload or poor circulation. Coolness (choice C) and pallor (choice D) of the forearm are not characteristic signs of phlebitis but may indicate impaired circulation or reduced blood flow to the area.

5. During an eye irrigation for a client exposed to smoke and ash, which nursing action should receive the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority during an eye irrigation for a client exposed to smoke and ash is wearing gloves during the procedure. This action is crucial as it helps prevent contamination and protects both the client and the nurse. Using a sterile solution is important but not as critical as ensuring the nurse's safety by wearing gloves. Irrigating from the inner to the outer canthus and positioning the client's head properly are essential steps in eye irrigation, but they are not the highest priority in this scenario compared to ensuring infection control by wearing gloves.

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