HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?
- A. “I am afraid to walk if it hurts too much.”
- B. “I don’t understand why I need this surgery.”
- C. “I don’t want my family helping me after the surgery.”
- D. “I am afraid the scar will make me look disfigured.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin is being discharged. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to complete first?
- A. Provide the client with printed information on insulin self-administration.
- B. Obtain printed information on insulin self-administration.
- C. Make a copy of the medication reconciliation form for the client.
- D. Determine whether the client can afford the insulin administration supplies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining printed information on insulin self-administration should be the nurse's first priority. This action ensures that the client has the necessary knowledge to safely self-administer insulin at home. Providing the client with printed information (Choice A) is essential to empower the client with the required knowledge before considering additional resources. Making a copy of the medication reconciliation form for the client (Choice C) is important for documentation purposes but not as urgent as ensuring the client's understanding of insulin administration. Determining the client's ability to afford insulin administration supplies (Choice D) is crucial but should follow after ensuring the client is equipped with the necessary information for safe self-administration.
3. A client who is lactating is being taught about taking medications by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse recommend to minimize the entry of medication into breast milk?
- A. Drink 8 oz of water with each dose of medication.
- B. Use medications that have a short half-life.
- C. Take each dose right after breastfeeding.
- D. Pump breast milk and discard it prior to feeding the newborn.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Taking medications immediately after breastfeeding helps minimize the amount of medication that enters breast milk. By doing so, there is a longer interval between the medication intake and the next breastfeeding session, reducing the concentration of the medication in breast milk. Options A and B are incorrect as drinking water with medication or using medications with a short half-life do not directly minimize the entry of medication into breast milk. Option D is unnecessary and wasteful as pumping and discarding breast milk before feeding is not as effective as timing medication intake with breastfeeding to reduce medication transfer into breast milk.
4. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?
- A. Dystonia
- B. Akathisia
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.
5. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?
- A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
- B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
- C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
- D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.
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