Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?

• A. “I am afraid to walk if it hurts too much.”
• B. “I don’t understand why I need this surgery.”
• C. “I don’t want my family helping me after the surgery.”
• D. “I am afraid the scar will make me look disfigured.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.

2. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?

• A. A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
• B. Presence of serous drainage
• C. Edema around the wound
• D. Absence of granulation tissue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.

3. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help with sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Determine the client's sleep and activity pattern
• B. Obtain a prescription for the client to take when stressed
• C. Refer the client for a sleep study and neurological follow-up
• D. Teach coping strategies to use when feeling stressed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to determine the client's sleep and activity pattern. By assessing the client's patterns, the nurse can identify factors contributing to the sleep issues and tailor appropriate interventions. Choice B is incorrect because prescribing medication without a comprehensive assessment is not the initial step. Choice C is unnecessary at this stage as the client's symptoms are likely related to stress rather than a neurological disorder. Choice D, while important, should come after understanding the client's sleep patterns to provide holistic care. Therefore, option A is the best choice to address the client's sleep difficulties and headaches effectively.

4. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?

• A. Early decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Accelerations
• D. Moderate variability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Barrel chest
• B. Clubbing of the fingers
• C. Cough with sputum production
• D. Use of accessory muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD. It indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Barrel chest is a common physical characteristic in individuals with COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs but is not as acutely concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Clubbing of the fingers is a late sign of chronic hypoxia and is often seen in conditions with prolonged hypoxemia but is not as acute as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production is a common symptom in COPD due to excess mucus production but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress as the use of accessory muscles does.

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