Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?

• A. “I am afraid to walk if it hurts too much.”
• B. “I don’t understand why I need this surgery.”
• C. “I don’t want my family helping me after the surgery.”
• D. “I am afraid the scar will make me look disfigured.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.

2. The nurse is preparing a handout on infant feeding to be distributed to families visiting the clinic. Which notation should be included in the teaching materials?

• A. Solid foods are introduced one at a time beginning with cereal.
• B. Finely ground meat should be avoided early to provide iron.
• C. Egg white is not recommended early to increase protein intake.
• D. Solid foods should not be mixed with formula in a bottle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Introducing solid foods one at a time, starting with cereal, is recommended to monitor for any food allergies or intolerances in infants. Choice B is incorrect as finely ground meat should be introduced later due to the risk of choking and is not necessary for iron intake. Choice C is incorrect as egg white should be avoided early due to the risk of allergies. Choice D is incorrect as solid foods should not be mixed with formula in a bottle to prevent overfeeding and promote healthy eating habits.

3. When a client decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages of the coronary arteries, it is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Nonmaleficence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their healthcare, including the choice to refuse treatment or surgery. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite the recommendation is an exercise of autonomy. Choice A, fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, justice, pertains to fair and equal distribution of resources and treatment, not the individual's right to make decisions. Choice D, nonmaleficence, relates to the obligation to do no harm, which is not directly applicable to the client's decision to refuse surgery.

4. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

Similar Questions