Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse to use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?

• A. Tell me how you are feeling right now.
• B. Describe the pain you are experiencing.
• C. Can you tell me more about your back pain?
• D. When did the pain start and how severe is it?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Describe the pain you are experiencing.' This question is the most effective as it prompts the client to provide detailed information about the nature of the pain, including its characteristics, intensity, and location. This detailed description can help the nurse in assessing the possible cause and severity of the pain. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective as they are either too general ('Tell me how you are feeling right now'), redundant ('Can you tell me more about your back pain?'), or focused only on timing and severity ('When did the pain start and how severe is it?').

2. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

3. The nurse is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the nurse use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irrigating the wound with sterile normal saline is the correct technique for cleansing a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Sterile normal saline is a standard and safe solution that helps to remove debris and promote healing without damaging healthy tissue. Choice A, using povidone-iodine solution, can be cytotoxic and delay wound healing. Choice C, using hydrogen peroxide, can be cytotoxic, cause tissue damage, and delay wound healing. Choice D, using wet-to-dry dressing to remove eschar, is an outdated and non-selective method that can cause trauma to the wound bed and delay healing. Therefore, choice B is the best option for wound cleansing in this scenario.

4. While bathing a patient, the nurse notices movement in the patient's hair. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Use gloves to inspect the hair.
• B. Apply a lindane-based shampoo immediately.
• C. Shave the patient's hair off.
• D. Ignore the movement and continue.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse suspects pediculosis capitis (head lice) upon noticing movement in the patient's hair, the correct action is to use gloves to inspect the hair. This protects the nurse from potential self-infestations. Applying a lindane-based shampoo immediately (Choice B) is not the first action, as diagnosis and confirmation are necessary before treatment. Shaving the patient's hair off (Choice C) is an extreme measure and is unnecessary at this stage. Ignoring the movement and continuing (Choice D) is negligent and can lead to the spread of infestation.

5. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.

Similar Questions