Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, what clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Photophobia
• B. High fever
• C. Rash
• D. Nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High fever. In bacterial meningitis, a high fever is a common clinical manifestation due to the body's inflammatory response to the infection. While photophobia (choice A) is also a common symptom in meningitis, it is not as specific as a high fever. Rash (choice C) is more commonly associated with viral infections or other conditions, rather than bacterial meningitis. Nasal congestion (choice D) is not a typical clinical manifestation of bacterial meningitis and is more commonly seen in respiratory infections. Therefore, when assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, the nurse is most likely to observe a high fever as a key clinical manifestation.

2. What is the most important intervention for a nurse to implement for a child with sickle cell anemia admitted to the hospital during a vaso-occlusive crisis?

• A. Administering oxygen
• B. Ensuring adequate hydration
• C. Monitoring vital signs
• D. Administering pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ensuring adequate hydration is crucial during a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia as it helps to reduce the viscosity of the blood and prevent further sickling of the cells. While administering oxygen may be necessary in some cases, ensuring hydration takes precedence as it directly impacts the underlying pathophysiology of the crisis. Monitoring vital signs is important for ongoing assessment but does not directly address the crisis as hydration does. Administering pain medication is important for pain relief but does not address the primary issue of vaso-occlusion and is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario.

3. An infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) with exstrophy of the bladder. What covering should the nurse use to protect the exposed area?

• A. Loose diaper
• B. Dry gauze dressing
• C. Moist sterile dressing
• D. Petroleum jelly gauze pad

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of exstrophy of the bladder, a moist sterile dressing is the most appropriate choice to protect the exposed bladder tissue. Moist sterile dressings help maintain a clean environment, prevent infection, and promote healing. A loose diaper (Choice A) may not provide adequate protection and may lead to contamination. Dry gauze dressing (Choice B) could adhere to the wound and cause trauma upon removal. Petroleum jelly gauze pad (Choice D) is not ideal as it may not provide the necessary barrier against infection and could potentially cause irritation.

4. A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who says, “My baby stopped breathing for a while.” The infant continues to have difficulty breathing, with prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?

• A. Birth occurred before 32 weeks’ gestation
• B. Lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds
• C. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds
• D. Retractions and use of accessory respiratory muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles can be signs of respiratory distress, which may indicate trauma such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS). Shaken baby syndrome can result in brain injury and respiratory compromise, leading to breathing difficulties. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be associated with SBS. Birth before 32 weeks’ gestation is more related to prematurity rather than SBS. The lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds, as well as previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds, are not specific indicators of SBS.

5. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

• A. Shortened prothrombin time
• B. Increased fibrinogen level
• C. Positive fibrin split products
• D. Increased platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positive fibrin split products indicate disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a condition characterized by the widespread formation of blood clots throughout the body. In DIC, clotting factors are consumed, leading to increased fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster blood clotting, which is not consistent with the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) is also not a characteristic finding in DIC, as fibrinogen levels may be decreased due to consumption in the formation of clots. Increased platelets (Choice D) are not typically observed in DIC; instead, thrombocytopenia (decreased platelet count) is more common due to their consumption in clot formation.

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