Nursing Elites

1. A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?

• A. Right lower quadrant pain
• B. Left lower quadrant pain
• C. Rebound tenderness
• D. Epigastric pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.

2. When assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, what clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Photophobia
• B. High fever
• C. Rash
• D. Nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High fever. In bacterial meningitis, a high fever is a common clinical manifestation due to the body's inflammatory response to the infection. While photophobia (choice A) is also a common symptom in meningitis, it is not as specific as a high fever. Rash (choice C) is more commonly associated with viral infections or other conditions, rather than bacterial meningitis. Nasal congestion (choice D) is not a typical clinical manifestation of bacterial meningitis and is more commonly seen in respiratory infections. Therefore, when assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, the nurse is most likely to observe a high fever as a key clinical manifestation.

3. When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:

• A. nondisjunction.
• B. X-linked recessive inheritance.
• C. genomic imprinting.
• D. autosomal dominant inheritance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division that leads to the presence of an extra chromosome 21. This additional chromosome alters the normal genetic makeup, resulting in the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is nondisjunction (Choice A). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Trisomy 21 is not caused by X-linked recessive inheritance, genomic imprinting, or autosomal dominant inheritance. Understanding the specific genetic mechanism involved in Trisomy 21 is crucial for grasping the basis of this chromosomal disorder.

4. The nurse is assessing a 13-year-old boy with type 2 diabetes mellitus. What would the nurse correlate with the disorder?

• A. The parents report that their child had 'a cold or flu' recently.
• B. Blood pressure is decreased when checking vital signs.
• C. The parents report that their son 'can’t drink enough water.'
• D. Auscultation reveals Kussmaul breathing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Excessive thirst (polydipsia) is a common symptom of type 2 diabetes mellitus, indicating high blood glucose levels. This symptom occurs due to the body trying to get rid of excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is more indicative of a recent viral illness rather than a symptom of diabetes. Choice B, decreased blood pressure, is not typically associated with type 2 diabetes; in fact, diabetes can often lead to hypertension. Choice D, Kussmaul breathing, is more characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis, which is more common in type 1 diabetes rather than type 2 diabetes.

5. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
• B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
• C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
• D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta are the cardiac defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. In Tetralogy of Fallot, these specific abnormalities contribute to the classic features of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries, not Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D mentions an altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which is not a defining characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot.

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