Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. As part of the plan of care, the nurse focuses on maintaining his cardiopulmonary function. Which intervention would the nurse implement to best promote maximum chest expansion?

• A. Deep-breathing exercises
• B. Upright positioning
• C. Coughing
• D. Chest percussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Upright positioning is the optimal intervention to promote maximum chest expansion in a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. By placing the child in an upright position, gravity can assist in expanding the chest cavity, facilitating better lung expansion and improving breathing efficiency. Deep-breathing exercises may be beneficial but are not as effective in maximizing chest expansion as upright positioning. Coughing and chest percussion focus more on airway clearance and are not directly aimed at promoting chest expansion.

2. A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who has difficulty breathing and prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?

• A. Birth occurred before 32 weeks’ gestation
• B. Lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds
• C. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds
• D. Retractions and use of accessory respiratory muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles are signs of respiratory distress in infants. These clinical manifestations can be associated with trauma, such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS), which can lead to severe head injuries and respiratory compromise. Birth before 32 weeks’ gestation (Choice A) is more related to prematurity complications rather than SBS. The absence of stridor and adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) may not be specific indicators of SBS. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds (Choice C) alone may not be as concerning as the presence of retractions and use of accessory muscles in the context of a distressed infant.

3. When developing the plan of care for a child with cerebral palsy, which treatment would the nurse expect as least likely?

• A. Skeletal traction
• B. Physical therapy
• C. Orthotics
• D. Occupational therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a child with cerebral palsy, skeletal traction is the least likely treatment intervention. Cerebral palsy primarily involves motor function impairments, and skeletal traction is not a typical intervention for this condition. Physical therapy is commonly used to improve movement and function, orthotics help with posture and mobility, and occupational therapy addresses activities of daily living. These interventions are more aligned with the needs of a child with cerebral palsy compared to skeletal traction, making it the least likely treatment option.

4. A parent asks a nurse how to tell the difference between measles (rubeola) and German measles (rubella). What should the nurse tell the parent about rubeola that is different from rubella?

• A. High fever and Koplik spots
• B. Rash on the trunk with pruritus
• C. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps
• D. Characteristics of a cold, followed by a rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a high fever and the presence of Koplik spots, which are not seen in rubella (German measles). Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, rash on the trunk with pruritus, is more indicative of rubella rather than rubeola. Choice C, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, are not specific differentiating symptoms between rubeola and rubella. Choice D, characteristics of a cold followed by a rash, does not specifically distinguish between rubeola and rubella.

5. The nurse is assessing a 13-year-old boy with type 2 diabetes mellitus. What symptom would the nurse correlate with the disorder?

• A. The parents report that their child had a recent 'cold or flu.'
• B. Blood pressure is decreased during vital signs assessment.
• C. The parents report that their son 'can’t drink enough water.'
• D. Auscultation reveals Kussmaul breathing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In type 2 diabetes mellitus, excessive thirst (polydipsia) is a common symptom due to high blood glucose levels. This results in the patient feeling unable to drink enough water to satisfy their thirst. The other options are incorrect because a recent 'cold or flu' (choice A) is not directly related to diabetes mellitus, decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a typical finding in uncontrolled diabetes, and Kussmaul breathing (choice D) is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, which is more common in type 1 diabetes mellitus.

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