Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give to the client?

• A. We need to document the exact medication you were taking because you might be allergic to it.
• B. You should take a different type of antibiotic this time.
• C. A rash is a common reaction and is not usually concerning.
• D. You can take the same antibiotic again if needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to document the exact medication taken to identify potential allergies and prevent adverse reactions. This is important as the client developed a rash previously while taking an antibiotic, indicating a possible allergic reaction. Choice B is not appropriate as switching antibiotics without proper evaluation can be risky. Choice C is incorrect as rashes should not be dismissed without further investigation, especially in the context of taking medication. Choice D is also not recommended as re-taking the same antibiotic without clarifying the allergic reaction can lead to a potentially severe outcome.

2. A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:

• A. Check to see if the tubing is kinked.
• B. Increase the IV fluid rate.
• C. Check the catheter insertion site.
• D. Contact the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.

3. A client has a sodium level of 125. What findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Abdominal cramping
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Increased thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low sodium levels (hyponatremia) often present with various symptoms, including abdominal cramping. Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia due to the altered electrolyte balance. Option B ('Elevated blood pressure') is incorrect because low sodium levels typically lead to decreased blood pressure, not elevated. Option C ('Decreased heart rate') is incorrect as low sodium levels are more likely to cause an irregular heart rate rather than a decreased heart rate. Option D ('Increased thirst') is incorrect because excessive thirst is more commonly associated with high sodium levels (hypernatremia) rather than low sodium levels.

4. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

5. A healthcare professional is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the healthcare professional:

• A. Refrigerates the collected specimen
• B. Collects the specimen in a sterile container
• C. Delays the collection of the specimen
• D. Uses a non-contaminated collection container

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Refrigeration can kill the ova and parasites present in the stool specimen, leading to inaccurate test results. Storing the specimen in a cold environment can disrupt the integrity of the parasites and ova, affecting the accuracy of the test. Collecting the specimen in a sterile container (Choice B) is the correct procedure to prevent external contamination. Delaying the collection of the specimen (Choice C) may affect the freshness of the sample but does not directly impact the test results. Using a non-contaminated collection container (Choice D) is essential to maintain the sample's integrity but does not relate to the risk of killing ova and parasites through refrigeration.

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