Nursing Elites

1. A client reports mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which non-pharmacological pain method should the nurse plan to use?

• A. Apply an ice pack to the client's back for 1 hour.
• B. Remove distractions from the client’s room.
• C. Instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths.
• D. Encourage the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths as a non-pharmacological pain management method. Deep breathing can help the client relax, reduce stress, and manage pain effectively. Applying heat or ice for prolonged periods can lead to tissue damage. Removing distractions can be helpful for promoting relaxation but may not directly address the pain itself.

2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve completely.
• C. Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.
• D. Chew the tablet for faster relief.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption of the medication through the oral mucosa, providing quick relief for angina symptoms. Option A, taking the medication with food, is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually, not with food. Option C, swallowing the tablet whole with water, is incorrect as sublingual tablets should not be swallowed whole. Option D, chewing the tablet for faster relief, is also incorrect as chewing the tablet can lead to rapid absorption and potential adverse effects rather than a controlled release for angina relief.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to admit a client suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to perform first?

• A. Implement airborne precautions.
• B. Obtain a sputum culture.
• C. Administer antituberculosis medications.
• D. Recommend a screening test for close contacts.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial priority when admitting a client suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis is to implement airborne precautions to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions include wearing a mask and placing the client in a negative pressure room. Obtaining a sputum culture is essential for confirming the diagnosis, but ensuring infection control measures come first to protect others. Administering antituberculosis medications is important but should be initiated after implementing necessary precautions. Recommending a screening test for close contacts is relevant but is a secondary concern compared to immediate infection control measures.

4. A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

• A. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client's medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse.
• B. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation.
• C. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client's durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client's care.
• D. A nurse discusses a client's status with the physical therapist who is caring for the client at the bedside.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIPAA guidelines specify that only healthcare professionals directly involved in a patient's care should access their medical information. Asking a nurse from another unit to assist with documentation involves sharing patient information with someone not directly caring for the patient, which violates HIPAA guidelines. Choices A, C, and D involve individuals directly involved in the client's care, making them appropriate actions in line with HIPAA regulations. Choice A involves educating a nursing student under the supervision of the nurse, which is permissible. Choice C involves communicating with the client's designated healthcare decision-maker, which is also allowed under HIPAA. Choice D involves discussing the client's status with another healthcare professional directly involved in the client's care, which is within HIPAA guidelines.

5. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

• A. During the admission process
• B. After the client is stabilized
• C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
• D. Just before the expected discharge date

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

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