Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.

2. A nurse in an outpatient clinic is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

• A. “Get up and change positions slowly.”
• B. “Avoid eating aged cheese and smoked meat.”
• C. “Report any unusual bruising or bleeding to the doctor immediately.”
• D. “Eat the same amount of foods that contain vitamin K every day.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to give the client who is starting on antihypertensive medication is to 'Get up and change positions slowly.' Antihypertensive medications can cause orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, so changing positions slowly helps prevent this adverse effect. Choice B about avoiding aged cheese and smoked meat is more relevant for clients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) due to potential interactions. Choice C regarding reporting unusual bruising or bleeding is more applicable for clients on anticoagulants. Choice D about consuming consistent amounts of vitamin K-containing foods daily is important for clients taking warfarin, not antihypertensive medications.

3. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

4. When assessing a client's neurologic system, what should the nurse ask the client to close their eyes and identify?

• A. A word whispered by the nurse 30cm from the ear
• B. A number traced on the palm of the hand
• C. The vibration of a tuning fork placed on the foot
• D. A familiar object placed in the hand

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse asks a client to identify a number traced on the palm of the hand with their eyes closed, it assesses the client's ability to perceive touch sensations. This test specifically evaluates the tactile discrimination of the client. The other options do not test the client's ability to identify sensations accurately with eyes closed. Option A tests auditory perception, option C tests vibratory sense, and option D tests object recognition but not tactile discrimination, making them incorrect choices.

5. While caring for a client receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter, after which of the following observations should the nurse remove the IV catheter?

• A. Swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site.
• B. The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.
• C. The infusion rate is slower than expected.
• D. The IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Swelling and coolness at the IV site can indicate complications such as infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues. Prompt removal of the IV catheter is essential to prevent further complications. The client reporting mild discomfort at the insertion site is common during IV therapy and does not necessarily warrant catheter removal unless there are signs of infiltration. A slower than expected infusion rate may not always necessitate IV catheter removal; the nurse should troubleshoot potential causes such as kinks in the tubing or pump malfunctions first. Just because the IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment does not automatically mean it should be removed; proper assessment and monitoring for complications are still essential.

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