Nursing Elites

1. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

2. A client with a recent total knee replacement is scheduled for physical therapy. The client refuses to participate, stating that the pain is too intense. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer the prescribed analgesic and encourage participation after it takes effect.
• B. Reschedule the physical therapy session for later in the day.
• C. Explain the importance of physical therapy for recovery.
• D. Notify the physical therapist of the client's refusal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before physical therapy helps manage the pain, making it easier for the client to participate in the necessary exercises to improve recovery and prevent complications such as joint stiffness. Choice B is not the first step as addressing the pain should take precedence. Choice C is important but should come after managing the pain to facilitate participation. Choice D involves another healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed in this situation.

3. A homeless male client with a history of alcohol abuse had a CVA 10 years ago that resulted in left hemiparesis. Today he is brought to the clinic reporting pain in his left leg. He is afebrile, has 4+ pitting edema in the lower left leg, and has minimal swelling of the right leg. Which action should the PN implement first?

• A. Obtain a blood alcohol test
• B. Inspect legs for infection or trauma
• C. Complete a mental status exam
• D. Inquire about dietary salt intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inspecting the legs for infection or trauma is the priority to assess the cause of the pain and edema, which could indicate deep vein thrombosis or cellulitis. Checking for signs of infection or trauma is crucial in this scenario to rule out potentially serious conditions. Obtaining a blood alcohol test, completing a mental status exam, or inquiring about dietary salt intake can be considered after addressing the immediate concern of identifying any infection or trauma in the leg.

4. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?

• A. Loosen the fistula dressing
• B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
• C. Document that the fistula is intact
• D. Apply gentle pressure over the site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.

5. What intervention should the PN implement when taking the rectal temperature of an adult client?

• A. Lubricate the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel.
• B. Gently insert the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum.
• C. Hold the thermometer in place the entire time while taking the temperature.
• D. Place the client in the left lateral position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking a rectal temperature, it is essential to hold the thermometer in place the entire time to ensure safety, accuracy, and prevent the thermometer from slipping out. Choice A, lubricating the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel, is important for comfort and ease of insertion. Choice B, gently inserting the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum, is more accurate for adults than inserting it 3 inches. Choice D, placing the client in the left lateral position, is not necessary for a rectal temperature measurement.

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