Nursing Elites

1. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

2. A client on bedrest refuses to wear the prescribed pneumatic compression devices after surgery. Which action should the PN implement in response to the client's refusal?

• A. Emphasize the importance of active foot flexion
• B. Check the surgical dressing
• C. Complete an incident report
• D. Explain the use of an incentive spirometer every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the PN to implement when a client refuses pneumatic compression devices is to emphasize the importance of active foot flexion. Active foot flexion exercises can help prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in clients who are not using the compression devices. Encouraging some form of circulation-promoting activity is crucial to reduce the risks associated with immobility. Checking the surgical dressing (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action to address the refusal of compression devices. Completing an incident report (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the client's refusal is not an incident. Explaining the use of an incentive spirometer (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the refusal of compression devices for DVT prevention.

3. What information should the PN collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?

• A. Name of the funeral home to contact
• B. Client's wishes regarding organ donation
• C. Contact information for the client's next of kin
• D. Health care proxy information

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation is crucial as it aligns with end-of-life care preferences and ensures that the client's decisions are respected. While obtaining the name of a funeral home (Choice A) may be necessary, it is not typically part of the initial admission assessment. Contact information for the client's next of kin (Choice C) is important for communication but may not be directly related to the client's immediate end-of-life wishes. Health care proxy information (Choice D) is vital for decision-making if the client becomes incapacitated but may not be the primary focus during the initial admission assessment.

4. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?

• A. Congestive
• B. Dilated
• C. Hypertrophic
• D. Restrictive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.

5. At what age does a 9-year-old child typically lose which of the following teeth?

• A. Central incisor
• B. Second molar
• C. Lateral incisor
• D. Cuspid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A 9-year-old child typically loses their central incisors, not the lateral incisors or second molars. The central incisors are usually among the first teeth that children lose around 6 to 7 years of age, as part of the natural process of shedding primary teeth to make way for permanent teeth. The second molars and cuspids are typically lost later in the mixed dentition phase. Therefore, option A, 'Central incisor,' is the correct answer.

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