HESI RN TEST BANK

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, 'What do you think you're doing?' How should the nurse respond?

    A. I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.

    B. This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.

    C. Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?

    D. You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because it addresses the client's concern by explaining that the shot will help relieve the pain in his feet, which is a symptom of peripheral neuritis. This response shows empathy and provides the client with a clear benefit of receiving the medication. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the client's immediate concern about the injection and its purpose, making them less suitable responses. Choice A focuses on the client's behavior rather than the therapeutic effect of the injection. Choice C shifts the responsibility to the client to administer the shot, which may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D mentions feeling calmer and less jittery, which is not directly related to the client's current complaint of pain in the feet.

When obtaining a urine specimen from a female infant, which intervention should the nurse implement?

  • A. Place the wet diaper in a biohazard specimen bag
  • B. Obtain the urine sample using a straight size 4 French catheter
  • C. Collect the urinary stream in mid-air when the infant cries
  • D. Secure the pediatric urine collector bag to the perineum

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When obtaining a urine specimen from a female infant, securing the pediatric urine collector bag to the perineum is the most appropriate intervention. This method allows for non-invasive collection of urine without causing discomfort or distress to the infant. Placing the wet diaper in a biohazard specimen bag (Choice A) is incorrect as it does not involve collecting a fresh urine sample. Using a catheter (Choice B) is invasive and not typically necessary for routine urine specimen collection from infants. Collecting the urinary stream in mid-air when the infant cries (Choice C) is not a reliable or hygienic method of obtaining a urine specimen.

A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?

  • A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
  • B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
  • C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
  • D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale of 3 indicates severe neurological impairment, suggesting a deep coma or even impending death. This client's condition is critical, and he has a very poor prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because a GCS of 3 does not directly indicate increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as a GCS of 3 signifies a grave neurological status. Choice C is incorrect as a GCS of 3 represents a state of unconsciousness rather than being conscious but disoriented.

A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

  • A. Heparin prevents future clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
  • B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
  • C. Let me contact your surgeon and find out if Heparin IV therapy can be administered to you at home
  • D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.

A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?

  • A. Discontinue the IO infusion
  • B. Administer an analgesic via the IO site
  • C. Elevate the extremity with the IO site
  • D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site raise concerns for complications like compartment syndrome or extravasation. The priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IO infusion to prevent further harm to the client. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity with the IO site may delay addressing the potential serious complications. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate action to ensure client safety is to stop the infusion.

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