Nursing Elites

1. After hospitalization for SIADH, a client develops pontine myelinolysis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Reorient the client to the room
• B. Place an eye patch on one eye
• C. Evaluate the client's ability to swallow
• D. Perform range of motion exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evaluating the client's ability to swallow is the priority intervention in this scenario. Pontine myelinolysis can affect neurological functions, including swallowing ability, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing the client's ability to swallow will help prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client to the room, placing an eye patch, or performing range of motion exercises are not as critical as ensuring the client can safely swallow.

2. A client with a history of chronic pain requests a nonopioid analgesic. The client is alert but has difficulty describing the exact nature and location of the pain to the nurse. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Administer the analgesic as requested.
• B. Request a pain assessment from another nurse.
• C. Ask the client to describe the pain more precisely.
• D. Delay administration until the pain is better described.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to delay administration until the pain is better described. It is essential to have a clear understanding of the nature and location of the pain before administering any analgesic to ensure appropriate and effective pain management. Requesting a pain assessment from another nurse or asking the client to describe the pain more precisely would also be appropriate actions to obtain more information before administering the analgesic. Administering the analgesic as requested without a clear description of the pain may not address the client's needs effectively and could potentially lead to ineffective pain management.

3. Twelve hours following a unilateral total knee replacement, a client reports being unable to sleep because of severe incisional pain. What is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Administer a prescribed sedative.
• B. Reposition the client for comfort.
• C. Apply ice packs to the surgical site.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of the prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client in the use of the PCA pump is the best initial nursing action for managing severe incisional pain after knee replacement surgery. The PCA pump allows the client to self-administer pain medication effectively, promoting better pain management. Administering a sedative may mask the pain temporarily but doesn't address the root cause. Repositioning the client for comfort or applying ice packs may provide some relief but doesn't address the need for effective pain control as the PCA pump does.

4. What are priority nursing interventions designed to do for a 4-year-old child with cerebral palsy?

• A. Assist with referral to specialized education.
• B. Support the child with independent toileting.
• C. Assist the child to develop effective communication.
• D. Encourage the child to ambulate independently.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Assist the child to develop effective communication.' Children with cerebral palsy often face challenges with communication skills. Therefore, priority nursing interventions aim to help them improve their communication abilities. Choice A is incorrect because while education is important, the priority for a child with cerebral palsy is to address immediate needs. Choice B is incorrect as toileting, although important, is not the priority in this case. Choice D is incorrect as ambulation may not be feasible or the most critical concern for a child with cerebral palsy.

5. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

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