after a hospitalization for siadh a client develops pontine myelinolysis which intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. After hospitalization for SIADH, a client develops pontine myelinolysis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evaluating the client's ability to swallow is the priority intervention in this scenario. Pontine myelinolysis can affect neurological functions, including swallowing ability, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing the client's ability to swallow will help prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client to the room, placing an eye patch, or performing range of motion exercises are not as critical as ensuring the client can safely swallow.

2. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a myelomeningocele. Before surgery, what should the nursing interventions include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention before surgery for a newborn with a myelomeningocele is to cover the lesion with a sterile, saline-soaked gauze. This helps protect the exposed spinal cord and meninges from infection and damage. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the lesion uncovered can increase the risk of infection. Choice C is incorrect because applying lotion can introduce contaminants to the lesion. Choice D is incorrect because covering the lesion with a dry gauze can lead to adherence of the gauze to the wound, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the healing process.

3. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of visual sensory/perceptual alterations. This problem is based on which etiology?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral vision. In open-angle glaucoma, decreased peripheral vision is a characteristic symptom resulting from increased intraocular pressure. This visual impairment can lead to sensory/perceptual alterations. Choice A, limited eye movement, is not directly associated with the pathophysiology of open-angle glaucoma. Choice C, blurred distance vision, is more commonly seen in conditions like myopia or presbyopia. Choice D, photosensitivity, is not a typical manifestation of open-angle glaucoma and is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or certain medications.

4. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

5. Based on the interpretation of this strip, what action should be implemented first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Call a code.' In the context of ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib), immediate defibrillation is crucial. Calling a code is the first step to activating the emergency response team, including individuals trained to provide defibrillation. Starting CPR (Choice B) may be necessary but should follow defibrillation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) and applying oxygen (Choice D) are important interventions in cardiac arrest cases, but in V-Fib, the priority is defibrillation to restore normal heart rhythm.

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