after a hospitalization for siadh a client develops pontine myelinolysis which intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. After hospitalization for SIADH, a client develops pontine myelinolysis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evaluating the client's ability to swallow is the priority intervention in this scenario. Pontine myelinolysis can affect neurological functions, including swallowing ability, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing the client's ability to swallow will help prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client to the room, placing an eye patch, or performing range of motion exercises are not as critical as ensuring the client can safely swallow.

2. A client is receiving a secondary infusion of erythromycin 1 gram in 100 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to be infused in 45 minutes. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To infuse 100 mL in 45 minutes, the infusion rate should be set to 133 mL/hour (100 mL / 0.75 hours). This calculation is obtained by dividing the total volume to be infused by the total time for infusion (100 mL / 0.75 hours = 133 mL/hour). Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate required to deliver the medication within the specified time frame.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who reports sudden onset of severe eye pain and blurred vision. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B). Sudden severe eye pain and blurred vision can indicate acute angle-closure glaucoma, which is a medical emergency requiring prompt evaluation and treatment to prevent vision loss. Administering pain medication (Choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Placing an eye patch (Choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the exact cause of the symptoms. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) is not the immediate priority in this situation where urgent medical attention is needed.

4. How is gastroesophageal reflux (GER) typically treated in infants?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is typically treated by thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal. This helps reduce reflux episodes by making the feedings heavier and less likely to come back up. Placing the infant NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the typical treatment for GER as infants need proper nutrition for growth. Placing the infant to sleep on the side is not recommended due to the risk of SIDS; infants should be placed on their back to sleep. Switching the infant to cow's milk is also not a treatment for GER, as cow's milk can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

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