HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. After hospitalization for SIADH, a client develops pontine myelinolysis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Reorient the client to the room
- B. Place an eye patch on one eye
- C. Evaluate the client's ability to swallow
- D. Perform range of motion exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Evaluating the client's ability to swallow is the priority intervention in this scenario. Pontine myelinolysis can affect neurological functions, including swallowing ability, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing the client's ability to swallow will help prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client to the room, placing an eye patch, or performing range of motion exercises are not as critical as ensuring the client can safely swallow.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected stroke. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a stroke?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking
- C. Gradual onset of weakness in the legs
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking. These are classic signs of a stroke, indicating a neurological deficit that requires urgent medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative of a stroke. Chest pain is more commonly associated with cardiac issues, gradual onset of weakness in the legs could be related to other conditions like peripheral neuropathy, and nausea/vomiting may suggest gastrointestinal problems rather than a stroke.
3. A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy with a known vesicant. The client's IV has been in place for 72 hours. The nurse determines that a new IV site cannot be obtained and leaves the present IV in place. What is the greatest clinical risk related to this situation?
- A. Impaired skin integrity
- B. Fluid volume excess
- C. Acute pain and anxiety
- D. Peripheral neurovascular dysfunction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Impaired skin integrity. In this situation, the greatest clinical risk is related to impaired skin integrity due to the potential extravasation of the vesicant. Vesicants are substances that can cause severe tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Choices B, C, and D are not the most significant risks in this scenario. Fluid volume excess, acute pain, and peripheral neurovascular dysfunction are not directly associated with leaving the IV in place with a known vesicant for an extended period.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse’s response?
- A. Noncompliance is probably impacting the optimum medication effectiveness.
- B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to four times a day.
- C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
- D. NSAID response is variable, and another NSAID may be more effective.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. NSAID response can vary among individuals, and sometimes a different NSAID may be more effective for a specific client. In this case, since the current NSAID (naproxen) is not providing pain relief, it is reasonable to consider switching to another NSAID. Choice A is incorrect because there is no information provided to suggest noncompliance. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the dosage without assessing the response may lead to unnecessary side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although it may take time for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels, lack of pain relief after a month is a valid reason to consider changing the medication rather than waiting longer.
5. An adult woman with primary Raynaud phenomenon develops pallor and then cyanosis of her fingers. After warming her hands, the fingers turn red, and the client reports a burning sensation. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a cool compress to the affected fingers for 20 minutes
- B. Secure a pulse oximeter to monitor the client's oxygen saturation
- C. Report the finding to the healthcare provider as soon as possible
- D. Continue to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In primary Raynaud phenomenon, the fingers go through a color sequence of pallor, cyanosis, and then redness when warmed. The burning sensation reported by the client indicates reperfusion. Continuing to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal is appropriate in this situation as it ensures that the symptoms are resolving without the need for further intervention. Applying a cool compress could exacerbate the symptoms by causing vasoconstriction. Securing a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen saturation is not necessary in this case as the issue is related to vasospasm rather than oxygenation. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider is not urgent unless there are signs of complications or the symptoms do not improve with warming.
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