a nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and not communicative during the past two weeks which intervention is most import
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Questions

1. A nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and less communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to participate in group activities. Group activities can help improve social interaction and potentially reduce feelings of isolation in depressed clients. Choice A, engaging the client in non-threatening conversations, may be helpful but may not address the underlying need for social interaction that group activities can provide. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not directly address the client's need for social engagement. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice C) is important for support but may not provide the same level of social interaction as group activities.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol) and begins to exhibit symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. Prompt reporting is crucial to evaluate the need for medication adjustment or change in treatment. Continuing the medication without intervention (choice A) can worsen the symptoms. Administering the next dose (choice B) is not appropriate when tardive dyskinesia is suspected. Educating the client (choice D) is important but not the priority when dealing with acute symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

3. A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. In clients with anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Assessing body image perception (choice A) is important but not the priority when compared to monitoring electrolyte levels. Evaluating exercise habits (choice C) and assessing the client's relationship with her family (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring electrolyte levels in a client with anorexia nervosa.

4. A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.

5. At a support meeting of parents of a teenager with polysubstance dependency, a parent states, 'Each time my son tries to quit taking drugs, he gets so depressed that I'm afraid he will commit suicide.' The nurse's response should be based on which information?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority is to teach the parents that their son will need monitoring and support during withdrawal to ensure that he does not attempt suicide. Option A is incorrect because addiction can be managed and treated effectively with appropriate interventions. Option B is incorrect as tolerance to drugs causing depression is not the primary concern in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as while depression can be a risk factor for drug abuse, in this case, the focus is on the son's safety during withdrawal.

Similar Questions

A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?
An emergency department nurse is caring for an adult client who is a victim of family violence. Which priority instruction would be included in the discharge instructions?
Which client information indicates the need for the nurse to use the CAGE questionnaire during the admission interview?
A moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over. The client says to a nurse, 'I'm finally cured.' The LPN/LVN interprets this behavior as a cue to modify the treatment plan by:
A female victim of sexual assault is being seen in the crisis center. The client states that she still feels 'as though the rape just happened yesterday,' even though it has been a few months since the incident. The appropriate nursing response is which of the following?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses