Nursing Elites

1. A male client with borderline personality disorder is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules. What is the best approach for the nurse to take?

• A. Enforce unit rules consistently with all clients.
• B. Ignore the manipulative behaviors to avoid confrontation.
• C. Provide the client with special privileges to avoid conflict.
• D. Confront the client directly about his behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to take when dealing with a male client with borderline personality disorder who is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules is to enforce unit rules consistently with all clients. By maintaining consistency in enforcing rules, the nurse establishes clear boundaries and provides structure, which are essential for managing manipulative behavior in clients with borderline personality disorder. Ignoring the manipulative behaviors (Choice B) may lead to the reinforcement of negative behaviors. Providing the client with special privileges (Choice C) can enable further manipulation and is not recommended. Confronting the client directly about his behavior (Choice D) may escalate the situation and is less effective than consistent rule enforcement.

2. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Excessive work activity.
• B. Decreased need for sleep.
• C. Medication management.
• D. Inflated self-esteem.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority is to manage the client's medication adherence to prevent escalation of manic behavior. Inflated self-esteem is the highest priority as it indicates the client's potential for harmful behaviors due to lack of medication compliance. While excessive work activity and decreased need for sleep are characteristics of mania, they are not as immediately concerning as the risk of harm related to inflated self-esteem.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Liver function tests.
• C. Blood glucose levels.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important laboratory test for an LPN/LVN to monitor for a client with schizophrenia being treated with clozapine is the white blood cell count. Clozapine treatment is associated with a risk of agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count regularly helps to detect this adverse effect early. Liver function tests (Choice B) are important to monitor with some antipsychotic medications but are not the most crucial for clozapine. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) are more relevant for monitoring in clients on medications like atypical antipsychotics that can cause metabolic side effects. Platelet count (Choice D) is not typically affected by clozapine therapy and is not the most important test to monitor in this case.

4. In the described scenario, a manic client threatens a nurse with physical violence after being told they cannot have a stripper perform. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Orient the client to time, person, and place
• B. Tell the client that the behavior is inappropriate
• C. Escort the manic client to her room, with assistance
• D. Tell the client that smoking privileges are revoked for 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, where the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence, the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to escort the client to her room with assistance. This action helps ensure the safety of both the client and the nurse, while also providing a controlled environment that can help de-escalate the situation. Choices A and B do not address the immediate safety concerns presented by the client's behavior. Choice D, revoking smoking privileges, is not directly related to the client's current behavior and does not address the threat of violence.

5. The nurse is planning care for a 32-year-old male client diagnosed with HIV infection who has a history of chronic depression. Recently, the client's viral load has begun to increase rather than decrease despite his adherence to the HIV drug regimen. What should the nurse do first while taking the client's history upon admission to the hospital?

• A. Determine if the client attends a support group weekly.
• B. Hold all antidepressant medications until further notice.
• C. Ask the client if he takes St. John's Wort routinely.
• D. Have the client describe any recent changes in mood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's top priority upon admission is to determine if the client has been taking St. John's Wort, an herbal preparation often used for depression. St. John's Wort can interact adversely with medications used to treat HIV infection, potentially explaining the rise in the viral load (C). Asking about attending support groups (A) or recent changes in mood (D) may provide valuable information about the client's depression but is not as critical as determining St. John's Wort use. Holding antidepressant medications (B) without assessing for potential interactions can be harmful to the client.

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