a male client with borderline personality disorder is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules what is the best approach for the n a male client with borderline personality disorder is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules what is the best approach for the n
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health 2023

1. A male client with borderline personality disorder is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules. What is the best approach for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to take when dealing with a male client with borderline personality disorder who is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules is to enforce unit rules consistently with all clients. By maintaining consistency in enforcing rules, the nurse establishes clear boundaries and provides structure, which are essential for managing manipulative behavior in clients with borderline personality disorder. Ignoring the manipulative behaviors (Choice B) may lead to the reinforcement of negative behaviors. Providing the client with special privileges (Choice C) can enable further manipulation and is not recommended. Confronting the client directly about his behavior (Choice D) may escalate the situation and is less effective than consistent rule enforcement.

2. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

3. The nurse closely monitors the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The purpose of this assessment is to detect an early sign of which possible complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the temperature of a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome is crucial to detect early signs of infection. Infection is a common complication in nephrotic syndrome, and fever can be an early indicator. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome. Encephalopathy (choice C) is a neurological complication and would present with altered mental status rather than a change in temperature. Edema (choice D) is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome but is not typically monitored through temperature assessment.

4. What instructions should the PN reinforce with the client regarding the newly prescribed medications isosorbide dinitrate and hydrochlorothiazide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to slowly rise from a sitting or lying down position. Isosorbide dinitrate, a nitrate, and hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic, can both cause hypotension. When used together, their additive effects can further lower blood pressure, leading to orthostatic hypotension. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure, reducing the risk of dizziness or falls. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the potential side effect of hypotension associated with the prescribed medications. Using a soft bristle toothbrush, elevating legs above the heart level, or limiting fiber intake are not specific instructions to mitigate the risk of orthostatic hypotension.

5. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the PICC line site for inflammation. When a client with a PICC line develops a fever, it could indicate an infection related to the catheter. Assessing the PICC line site for signs of inflammation, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage, is crucial in identifying a potential infection early. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to assessing a PICC line for infection. Choice C is not the most appropriate assessment in this situation as monitoring blood pressure may not directly help in identifying the cause of the fever. Choice D is unrelated to the assessment of a fever in a client with a PICC line.

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