HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. A LVN/LPN is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. The nurse is monitoring the behavior of the client and understands that a client with anorexia nervosa manages anxiety by:
- A. Engaging in immoral acts
- B. Always reinforcing self-approval
- C. Observing rigid rules and regulations
- D. Having the need always to make the right decision
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with anorexia nervosa often manage anxiety by adhering strictly to rules and regulations as a way to maintain control. Choice A is incorrect because engaging in immoral acts is not a common coping mechanism for clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice B is incorrect as self-approval is not typically the primary way clients with anorexia nervosa manage anxiety. Choice D is incorrect because while clients with anorexia nervosa may have a need to make the right decision, it is not the primary way they manage their anxiety.
2. A LPN/LVN is preparing to care for a dying client, and several family members are at the client's bedside. Select the therapeutic techniques that the nurse would use when communicating with the family. Select one that does not apply.
- A. Discourage reminiscing
- B. Make decisions for the family
- C. Encourage expression of feelings, concerns, and fears
- D. Explain everything that is happening to all family members
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the expression of feelings, concerns, and fears is a therapeutic technique that helps the family cope with the situation and express their emotions. This approach fosters trust and emotional release. Making decisions for the family is not appropriate because it takes away their autonomy and control during a difficult time. Discouraging reminiscing may hinder the family's coping mechanisms by discouraging them from sharing memories and finding comfort in the past. Explaining everything that is happening to all family members promotes transparency and understanding, which can help reduce anxiety and fear.
3. A client with panic disorder is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to breathe slowly and deeply.
- B. Ask the client to describe the sensations they are experiencing.
- C. Encourage the client to focus on a calming image.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.
4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
- B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
- C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
- D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. Dystonia can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone, leading to involuntary muscle contractions and abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat dystonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because thioridazine is not the appropriate medication in this case, a hot pack would not address the underlying issue of dystonia, and occupational therapy is not the primary intervention for addressing acute dystonic reactions.
5. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. The medication will help stabilize your mood and prevent mood swings.
- B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
- C. The medication will help you feel better and more in control of your emotions.
- D. The medication is needed to control your symptoms and help you function better.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access