Nursing Elites

1. A LVN/LPN is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. The nurse is monitoring the behavior of the client and understands that a client with anorexia nervosa manages anxiety by:

• A. Engaging in immoral acts
• B. Always reinforcing self-approval
• C. Observing rigid rules and regulations
• D. Having the need always to make the right decision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with anorexia nervosa often manage anxiety by adhering strictly to rules and regulations as a way to maintain control. Choice A is incorrect because engaging in immoral acts is not a common coping mechanism for clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice B is incorrect as self-approval is not typically the primary way clients with anorexia nervosa manage anxiety. Choice D is incorrect because while clients with anorexia nervosa may have a need to make the right decision, it is not the primary way they manage their anxiety.

2. What is the most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa admitted to the hospital?

• A. Providing high-calorie, high-protein meals.
• B. Monitoring vital signs and electrolytes.
• C. Encouraging the client to talk about feelings.
• D. Observing for signs of purging.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa is monitoring vital signs and electrolytes (B) to assess for life-threatening complications. This helps in early detection of any physiological imbalances that could lead to serious consequences. Providing high-calorie, high-protein meals (A) is important for nutritional rehabilitation but comes after ensuring the client's physical stability. Encouraging the client to talk about feelings (C) and observing for signs of purging (D) are relevant aspects of care but are not as critical as monitoring vital signs and electrolytes in the initial phase of treatment.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior.
• C. Restrict the client's access to the locks.
• D. Schedule specific times for the client to check the locks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who repeatedly checks locks is to encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior. By exploring the underlying anxiety and triggers, the client can work towards understanding and managing their compulsions. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to continue the behavior does not address the root cause or help modify the behavior. Choice C is inappropriate as restricting access to locks can increase anxiety and worsen symptoms. Choice D of scheduling specific times for checking locks does not address the underlying psychological issues driving the behavior.

4. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. Which activity is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to suggest to the client?

• A. Playing a game of basketball with other clients.
• B. Taking a walk with the nurse in the garden.
• C. Working on a puzzle in a quiet room.
• D. Writing in a journal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals may experience heightened levels of energy and agitation. Engaging in activities that are overly stimulating, such as playing basketball with others (choice A) or taking a walk in a garden (choice B), can exacerbate these symptoms. Writing in a journal (choice D) may also be too stimulating and may not provide the necessary distraction. Working on a puzzle in a quiet room (choice C) can offer a calming and focused activity that helps reduce anxiety and channel excess energy into a structured task, making it the most appropriate choice for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

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