Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed fluvoxamine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Fluvoxamine is known to cause drowsiness as a potential side effect. Patients should be advised to avoid activities like driving that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are potential side effects of other medications used for anxiety disorders but are not typically associated with fluvoxamine.

2. A client who is being discharged to home asks the practical nurse (PN) for a dose of hydrocodone before leaving the hospital. How should the PN respond to this client's request?

• A. Determine if a take-home prescription for hydrocodone was provided and, if so, tell him to take one of them.
• B. Encourage him to wait until he is at home to take a medication that might impair reasoning.
• C. Give him a tablet from the hospital stock and tell him to wait until he is almost home to take it.
• D. Ask him to describe the location and severity of the pain and to rate it on a scale from 1 to 10.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrocodone is a narcotic analgesic, and the practical nurse should gather more data from the client about the pain he is experiencing before giving the medication. The client's need for pain medication should be addressed, and pain medication should not be withheld because he is going home.

3. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

4. Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?

• A. Apical pulse heard best at the pulmonic site
• B. Irregular apical pulse rhythm
• C. Presence of a systolic heart murmur
• D. Apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute indicates bradycardia, a heart rate below the normal range, which requires immediate nursing intervention before administering medication to address the potential impact of the bradycardia on the patient's overall condition.

5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atorvastatin. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Kidney damage
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle pain. Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain, which may indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious adverse effect. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition where muscle breakdown releases a protein (myoglobin) into the bloodstream, potentially leading to kidney damage. Liver damage (choice A) is a less common side effect of atorvastatin compared to muscle pain. Kidney damage (choice B) is not a direct adverse effect of atorvastatin but can occur indirectly if rhabdomyolysis is severe. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a known adverse effect of atorvastatin.

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