Nursing Elites

1. A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse’s assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage the client to see a dermatologist
• B. Refer the adolescent to a substance abuse program
• C. Suggest a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet
• D. Inquire about a possible use of anabolic steroids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which snack is best for the nurse to recommend to the client?

• A. Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey
• B. Peanuts in the shell, roasted or unroasted
• C. Aged farmer’s cheese with celery sticks
• D. Baked apples topped with dried raisins

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey. This option is the best choice for a client with severe neutropenia undergoing chemotherapy because it is less likely to harbor harmful bacteria, which could cause infections due to the weakened immune system. Peanuts in the shell (choice B) may carry a risk of contamination, while aged farmer's cheese with celery sticks (choice C) and baked apples topped with dried raisins (choice D) may not be as safe as plain yogurt for a client with severe neutropenia.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

4. A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?

• A. Rising titers identify the etiology of certain neuro-sensory birth defects
• B. The screen determines the risk for inherited anomalies in the newborn
• C. The test identifies the correct antibiotic to give the newborn for an infection
• D. Exposure to infections that can cross the placenta cause a positive antibody titer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.

5. An adult client presents to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristic of Kaposi’s Sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family members. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood sample to determine if the client is HIV positive
• B. Send the family to the waiting area while conducting a head-to-toe assessment
• C. Complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV
• D. Ask the family members to wear gloves when touching the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV. Kaposi’s Sarcoma is commonly associated with HIV infection, and conducting a comprehensive assessment can provide crucial information on potential signs and symptoms related to HIV. This information is essential for providing appropriate care and treatment. Option A is not the priority at this moment, as the focus should be on assessing the client comprehensively first. Sending the family members away (Option B) may not be necessary if they are not interfering with the assessment process. While infection control is important, asking the family members to wear gloves (Option D) is not the most critical action to take in this situation.

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