Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions.
• D. Encourage the client to express feelings about withdrawal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, the first intervention the nurse should implement is to monitor the client's vital signs. Vital sign monitoring is crucial to assess for any potential complications such as hypertension, tachycardia, fever, or other signs of autonomic hyperactivity. Administering medication like lorazepam (Ativan) would come after assessing the vital signs to determine the need for pharmacological intervention. Placing the client on seizure precautions is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence to ensure immediate safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings about withdrawal is a supportive intervention but does not address the immediate physiological risk associated with alcohol withdrawal.

2. Two days after his last drink, a male alcoholic client becomes agitated and yells at his wife and children, 'Stay away from me!' His vital signs are elevated. What nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. High risk for social isolation.
• B. Altered parenting.
• C. Ineffective individual coping.
• D. High risk for injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for injury.' The client's agitation, elevated vital signs, and aggressive behavior pose a threat to himself and his family. Addressing the risk for injury is the priority to ensure the safety of all individuals involved. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this scenario. 'High risk for social isolation' does not address the immediate physical safety concern. 'Altered parenting' and 'Ineffective individual coping' are important but not as urgent as the risk for injury in this situation.

3. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Describes life as without purpose.
• B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
• C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
• D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

4. A client is preparing to attend a Gamblers Anonymous meeting for the first time. The prototype used by this group is the 12-step program developed by Alcoholics Anonymous. Number in order of priority how the steps would be addressed.

• A. Admitting to oneself and to another human being the exact nature of one's wrongs
• B. Acknowledging that one is entirely ready to have his or her defects of character removed
• C. Admitting that oneself is powerless over gambling and that one's life has become unmanageable
• D. Making an effort to practice the 12-step principles in all affairs, and to carry out this message to other compulsive gamblers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct order of addressing the 12-step program typically begins with admitting powerlessness over the addiction and recognizing the unmanageability of one's life (Choice C). Following this, individuals move towards acknowledging their wrongs and sharing them with others (Choice A), then being ready to work on changing their character defects (Choice B), and finally, integrating the 12-step principles into their daily lives and helping others (Choice D). Choices A, B, and C are important steps in the program but come after admitting powerlessness and unmanageability, which is why Choice D is the correct answer.

5. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

• A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
• B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
• C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
• D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy indicate the need for gastric lavage. Gastric lavage is a procedure used to remove toxic substances from the stomach in cases where the patient is unresponsive or unable to cooperate. Choice A is incorrect as the time of ingestion alone does not indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice B, although indicating a significant overdose, does not directly necessitate gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as it provides information about the possible psychological motivation for repeated suicide attempts, but it is not directly related to the immediate need for gastric lavage in this scenario.

Similar Questions