HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. Which family planning method is not advisable for women with extremely irregular menstrual periods?
- A. oral contraceptives
- B. diaphragm
- C. natural family planning
- D. vaginal contraceptives
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Natural family planning relies on tracking menstrual cycles to determine fertile days for avoiding or achieving pregnancy. It may not be suitable for women with extremely irregular menstrual periods as it can be challenging to predict fertile days accurately. Oral contraceptives (A), diaphragms (B), and vaginal contraceptives (D) do not rely on regular menstrual cycles for their effectiveness, making them more suitable options for women with irregular periods.
2. Certain health policies/strategies serve as guidelines in the delivery of services. Which of these is incorrect?
- A. A growth monitoring chart is a tool recommended for assessing and recording the child's health condition.
- B. Voluntary blood donation should be promoted through the organization of walking blood banks in rural areas.
- C. Public sectors should collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources.
- D. Traditional birth attendants should be trained and allowed to provide prenatal care to mothers.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is incorrect because public sectors are encouraged to collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources, not work separately. Collaborating with the private sector can lead to improved resource allocation, better service delivery, and enhanced healthcare outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are correct as growth monitoring charts are indeed recommended for assessing child health, promoting voluntary blood donation through walking blood banks is beneficial, and training traditional birth attendants to provide prenatal care can improve maternal health.
3. The nurse manager has a nurse employee who is suspected of having a problem with chemical dependency. Which intervention would be the best approach by the nurse manager?
- A. Confront the nurse about the suspicions in a private meeting
- B. Schedule a staff conference, without the nurse present
- C. Consult the human resources department about the issue and needed actions
- D. Counsel the employee to resign to avoid investigation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Consulting with human resources is the best approach in this situation. It ensures that the issue is handled according to the organization's policies and that the nurse receives the appropriate support and intervention needed for chemical dependency. Confronting the nurse directly may lead to defensiveness and hinder a constructive resolution. Scheduling a staff conference without the nurse present can create unnecessary speculation and violate the employee's privacy. Counseling the employee to resign is not appropriate and does not address the underlying problem of chemical dependency.
4. A 16-month-old child has just been admitted to the hospital. As the nurse assigned to this child enters the hospital room for the first time, the toddler runs to the mother, clings to her, and begins to cry. What would be the initial action by the nurse?
- A. Arrange for a change in client care assignments
- B. Explain that this behavior is expected
- C. Discuss the appropriate use of 'time-out'
- D. Explain that the child is in need of extra attention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to explain that this behavior is expected. At 16 months of age, children commonly experience separation anxiety, especially in unfamiliar environments like hospitals. It is important for the nurse to reassure the child and the parent that such behavior is normal. Option A is incorrect as there is no need to change client care assignments based on the child's behavior. Option C is not appropriate as discussing the use of 'time-out' is more relevant in behavior management for older children. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of the child's behavior related to separation anxiety.
5. A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Gingival hyperplasia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can lead to oral health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypokalemia as common side effects.
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