Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

2. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
• B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
• C. Check the client’s hemoglobin level
• D. Review the client’s current list of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.

3. A client is being treated for minor injuries following an automobile accident in which the only other passenger was killed. The client asks the nurse, 'Is my friend who was in the car with me ok?' What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. I am sorry, but your friend was killed in the accident.
• B. Right now you need to concentrate on getting well.
• C. Was the passenger in the car your friend?
• D. I think your friend is going to be all right.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am sorry, but your friend was killed in the accident.' In this situation, honesty and compassion are essential. The nurse should provide the client with truthful information, acknowledging the client's need to know the reality of the situation. Choice B is dismissive and does not address the client's inquiry directly. Choice C is a deflecting question and does not offer the direct information the client is seeking. Choice D provides false reassurance, which is not appropriate in this circumstance where the reality needs to be communicated.

4. A client complains of paresthesia in the fingers and toes and experiences hand spasms when the blood pressure cuff is inflated. Which serum laboratory finding should the nurse expect to find when assessing the client?

• A. Elevated serum calcium
• B. Low serum magnesium
• C. Low serum calcium
• D. Elevated serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low serum calcium. Hand spasms and paresthesia are indicative of potential hypocalcemia, which is characterized by low serum calcium levels. Elevated serum calcium (Choice A) is not consistent with the symptoms described. Low serum magnesium (Choice B) and elevated serum potassium (Choice D) are not typically associated with hand spasms and paresthesia.

5. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.

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