Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been admitted to the psychiatric unit tells the nurse, 'My problems are so bad that no one can help me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. How can I help?
• B. Things probably aren't as bad as they seem right now.
• C. Let's talk about what is right with your life.
• D. I hear how miserable you are, but things will get better soon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering self shows empathy and caring (A) and is the best choice provided. (B) dismisses the client's feelings and reality. (C) avoids addressing the client's concerns directly and may come across as invalidating. Although (D) starts with acknowledging the client's feelings, the second part about things getting better soon can be perceived as offering false reassurance, which is not recommended in therapeutic communication.

2. A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
• B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
• C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
• D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.

3. A male client with alcohol dependence is admitted for detoxification. The nurse knows that which assessment finding is indicative of alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tremors
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tremors are a common sign of alcohol withdrawal. The central nervous system becomes hyperexcitable due to the suppression caused by chronic alcohol intake. Tremors are a manifestation of this hyperexcitability and are a key indicator of alcohol withdrawal. Bradycardia and hypotension are more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration rather than alcohol withdrawal. Hyperglycemia is not a typical finding in alcohol withdrawal; instead, hypoglycemia is more commonly seen due to the effects of alcohol on glucose metabolism.

4. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

5. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The LPN/LVN notes that the client has not bathed or dressed in clean clothes for several days. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to take a shower.
• B. Assist the client with activities of daily living.
• C. Provide the client with clean clothes to change into.
• D. Explain the importance of personal hygiene to the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client with activities of daily living. This intervention is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the client's immediate needs by providing assistance with personal hygiene and dressing. It promotes self-care and ensures the client's well-being. Encouraging the client to take a shower (Choice A) may not be effective if the client is unable to do so independently due to their condition. Providing clean clothes (Choice C) is important but does not address the client's need for assistance with personal care. Explaining the importance of personal hygiene (Choice D) may not be as effective as providing direct assistance in this situation.

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