Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been admitted to the psychiatric unit tells the nurse, 'My problems are so bad that no one can help me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. How can I help?
• B. Things probably aren't as bad as they seem right now.
• C. Let's talk about what is right with your life.
• D. I hear how miserable you are, but things will get better soon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering self shows empathy and caring (A) and is the best choice provided. (B) dismisses the client's feelings and reality. (C) avoids addressing the client's concerns directly and may come across as invalidating. Although (D) starts with acknowledging the client's feelings, the second part about things getting better soon can be perceived as offering false reassurance, which is not recommended in therapeutic communication.

2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions.
• D. Encourage the client to express feelings about withdrawal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, the first intervention the nurse should implement is to monitor the client's vital signs. Vital sign monitoring is crucial to assess for any potential complications such as hypertension, tachycardia, fever, or other signs of autonomic hyperactivity. Administering medication like lorazepam (Ativan) would come after assessing the vital signs to determine the need for pharmacological intervention. Placing the client on seizure precautions is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence to ensure immediate safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings about withdrawal is a supportive intervention but does not address the immediate physiological risk associated with alcohol withdrawal.

3. A client in the mental health unit believes that the food is being poisoned. What intervention(s) would be helpful when attempting to encourage the client to eat? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Use open-ended questions to encourage client dialogue
• B. Offer opinions about the necessity for adequate nutrition
• C. Focus on the client's self-disclosure about food preferences
• D. Identify the reasons the client has for not wanting to eat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using open-ended questions and focusing on the client's self-disclosure about food preferences can help build rapport and trust with the client, encouraging them to eat. Identifying the reasons the client has for not wanting to eat can provide insights into their concerns. However, offering opinions about the necessity for adequate nutrition may come across as imposing views on the client, potentially leading to resistance. This approach may not be as effective in encouraging the client to eat as it could create a power dynamic that hinders the therapeutic relationship.

4. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Kidney function tests
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White blood cell count. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this condition early. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver and kidney function tests are important in monitoring other aspects of health, the most critical concern with clozapine therapy is the risk of agranulocytosis, making monitoring white blood cell count the priority.

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