HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol) and begins to exhibit symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Continue the medication and monitor for worsening symptoms.
- B. Administer the next dose of haloperidol with food.
- C. Report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Educate the client about the side effects of haloperidol.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. Prompt reporting is crucial to evaluate the need for medication adjustment or change in treatment. Continuing the medication without intervention (choice A) can worsen the symptoms. Administering the next dose (choice B) is not appropriate when tardive dyskinesia is suspected. Educating the client (choice D) is important but not the priority when dealing with acute symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.
2. The nurse is caring for a client who received the first-time electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) a half hour ago. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Offer oral fluids.
- B. Monitor vital signs.
- C. Evaluate ECT effectiveness.
- D. Encourage group participation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a client receives electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), the nurse's priority should be to monitor vital signs. This is important to ensure the client's physical stability and detect any immediate complications post-procedure. Offering oral fluids, evaluating ECT effectiveness, and encouraging group participation are all important aspects of care but monitoring vital signs takes precedence in the immediate post-ECT period.
3. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who is constantly washing her hands?
- A. Allow the client to continue washing her hands.
- B. Set limits on the time spent washing her hands.
- C. Encourage the client to wash her hands less frequently.
- D. Assist the client in finding alternative ways to reduce anxiety.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client in finding alternative ways to reduce anxiety is the most appropriate intervention for a client with OCD who is constantly washing her hands. This approach helps address the underlying cause of the compulsive behavior by focusing on reducing anxiety rather than reinforcing the behavior. Allowing the client to continue washing her hands (choice A) would not address the root of the issue and may perpetuate the behavior. Setting limits on the time spent washing hands (choice B) may cause distress to the client and does not address the core problem. Encouraging the client to wash her hands less frequently (choice C) does not provide effective coping strategies for managing anxiety associated with OCD.
4. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while she vigorously does push-ups and then runs the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to toss chairs aside, looking for a red one to sit in. When another client objects to the disturbance, the client shouts, 'I am the boss here. I do what I want.' Which nursing problem best supports these observations?
- A. Deficient diversional activity related to excess energy level.
- B. Risk for other-directed violence related to disruptive behavior.
- C. Risk for activity intolerance related to hyperactivity.
- D. Disturbed personal identity related to grandiosity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's disruptive and potentially harmful behavior, including tossing chairs and claiming authority, indicates a risk for other-directed violence. This behavior poses a threat to the safety of the client and others. While the client may have excess energy, the primary concern is the potential for violence, not just a lack of diversional activities (Choice A). The client's behavior is not solely due to hyperactivity leading to activity intolerance (Choice C) or grandiosity affecting personal identity (Choice D), making these options less appropriate in this context.
5. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
- D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.
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