Nursing Elites

1. A client with partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound.
• B. Administer an analgesic.
• C. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• D. Ensure the client's nutritional needs are met.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an analgesic before whirlpool therapy is the priority intervention in this scenario. Whirlpool therapy for debridement can be painful for the client with partial-thickness burns. Administering an analgesic before the procedure helps manage pain during the debridement process, ensuring the client's comfort. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may be necessary after the whirlpool therapy but is not the immediate pre-transport intervention. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice C) and ensuring nutritional needs are met (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not specifically related to preparing the client for whirlpool therapy.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

• A. Neutralizes stomach acid
• B. Decreases gastric acid secretion
• C. Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid
• D. Improves gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, shielding them from stomach acid and promoting healing. Choice A, neutralizing stomach acid, is incorrect as sucralfate does not neutralize acid but acts as a physical barrier. Choice B, decreasing gastric acid secretion, is not the mechanism of action of sucralfate. Choice D, improving gastric motility, is unrelated to sucralfate's action on peptic ulcers.

3. A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. No. When the lesions have disappeared, you may stop the nystatin.
• B. Yes. You should continue it for the full 7 days.
• C. No. Thrush is a self-limiting disorder, and nystatin is given for complete treatment.
• D. Yes. The medication should be refilled for a second week of therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because nystatin should be given for the full 7 days even if the lesions are no longer present. Continuing the treatment for the prescribed duration ensures complete eradication of the fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication prematurely may lead to the reoccurrence of thrush. Choice C is inaccurate as nystatin is not just for comfort but for effective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as refilling the medication for a second week without medical advice may lead to unnecessary prolonged use and potential side effects.

4. A male client with muscular dystrophy fell in his home and is admitted with a right hip fracture. His right foot is cool, with palpable pedal pulses. Lungs are coarse with diminished bibasilar breath sounds. Vital signs are temperature 101 degrees F, heart rate 128 beats/minute, respirations 28 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 122/82. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?

• A. Obtain oxygen saturation level.
• B. Encourage incentive spirometry.
• C. Assess lower extremity circulation
• D. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering an antipyretic is the most important intervention. The client presents with an elevated temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, indicating a fever. Lowering the temperature with an antipyretic is crucial to prevent complications like dehydration, altered mental status, and increased oxygen demand. While assessing lower extremity circulation and oxygen saturation are important, addressing the elevated temperature takes priority in this scenario. Incentive spirometry may be beneficial but is not the priority compared to managing the fever.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed.
• B. Place the client in a supine position.
• C. Obtain a detailed health history.
• D. Monitor urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering antihypertensive medication is the priority nursing action in this situation. The extremely high blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg puts the client at risk of severe complications such as stroke, heart attack, or kidney damage. Lowering the blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent these complications. Placing the client in a supine position or obtaining a detailed health history are not immediate actions needed to address the hypertensive crisis. Monitoring urine output, although important, is not the priority when the client's blood pressure is critically high.

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