a client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine mestinon the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects
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Community Health HESI Test Bank

1. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

2. After accepting the position of school nurse in a public elementary school, what strategy is best for the nurse to use to obtain an overview understanding of the student body?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conducting a windshield survey is the best strategy for the nurse to obtain an overview understanding of the student body. This method allows the nurse to observe the community, its resources, potential health hazards, and demographic information. Reviewing health records (Choice A) would provide detailed health information but not an overview of the student body. Talking with the parent-teacher association (Choice B) may offer insights but not a comprehensive overview. Sending a survey form to parents (Choice C) may provide specific information but may not capture a broad understanding of the student body.

3. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

4. A community health action that focuses on reducing the frequency and severity of asthma in inner-city children by requiring a local incinerator to install particulate filters is an example of:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: upstream intervention. Upstream thinking addresses the root causes of health problems to create long-term solutions. In this scenario, requiring the incinerator to install particulate filters tackles the root cause of asthma triggers, which is pollution, rather than just managing the symptoms or risks associated with asthma. Choice A, downstream intervention, would focus more on treating asthma symptoms after they have already occurred rather than preventing them. Choice B, risk management, typically involves strategies to assess, control, or mitigate risks, which may not directly address the root cause. Choice C, primary prevention, usually refers to actions taken to prevent a disease or condition before it occurs, but in this case, the action is targeting the underlying cause rather than preventing asthma itself.

5. What title should be given to this role in occupational health? An advanced practice nurse who provides workers with primary care services with an emphasis on the diagnosis and management of common acute illnesses/injuries and stable chronic diseases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct title for this role is a clinician nurse practitioner as they provide primary care services, including diagnosing and managing illnesses. Choice A, case manager, typically focuses on coordinating care and services for patients. Choice B, nurse consultant, involves providing expert advice and guidance. Choice D, health promotion specialist, concentrates on promoting health and preventing diseases rather than diagnosing and treating illnesses.

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