Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed doxazosin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Doxazosin is an alpha-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the potential side effects of doxazosin is causing a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of low blood pressure when initiating or adjusting the dose of doxazosin.

2. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis?

• A. Rotate injection sites to prevent irritation.
• B. Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Avoid sunlight exposure while on this medication.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of any signs of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed etanercept is to rotate injection sites to prevent irritation and ensure proper absorption. Changing sites will help prevent skin irritation and ensure that the medication is absorbed effectively. This practice also reduces the risk of injection site reactions and discomfort. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote optimal medication delivery and minimize adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because etanercept can be taken with or without food, and it is not specifically indicated to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific association between etanercept and sunlight exposure. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to notify the healthcare provider of signs of infection, this is not the primary instruction related to the administration of etanercept.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing client teaching materials on commonly used medications. Which client is most likely to benefit from a client education package about simvastatin?

• A. A 50-year-old male with a history of angina
• B. A 75-year-old male with bone cancer
• C. An 18-year-old pregnant female with diabetes
• D. A 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Simvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and prevent cardiovascular diseases. It is commonly prescribed for individuals at risk of heart-related conditions. Angina is a symptom of underlying heart disease, and individuals with this condition would benefit most from simvastatin to help manage their cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the 50-year-old male with a history of angina is the most suitable candidate for client education regarding simvastatin. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate candidates for simvastatin education because bone cancer, pregnancy with diabetes, and frequent vaginal infections are not conditions typically treated with simvastatin.

4. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

• A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
• B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
• C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
• D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

5. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
• B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
• C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
• D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

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