a client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan the nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect
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Nursing Elites

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Pharmacology HESI Practice

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.

2. A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

4. The healthcare provider has prescribed an influenza vaccine for a 74-year-old client before discharge. Which client condition would prompt the practical nurse to consult with the charge nurse rather than administer the vaccine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of an egg allergy. The influenza vaccine may contain a small amount of egg protein. According to the CDC, individuals with a severe allergy to any component of the vaccine, including egg protein, should not receive the influenza vaccine. Therefore, if the client has a history of an allergy to eggs, the practical nurse should not administer the vaccine and consult with the charge nurse for further guidance, as it is a contraindication. The other conditions listed do not require consultation before administering the influenza vaccine.

5. A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scopolamine is not a pain medication; it is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly in surgical settings. It works on the central nervous system to help control these symptoms, not to relieve pain. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to explain to the client that the medication is not intended to relieve pain but rather to manage other specific symptoms. Checking the correct placement of the patch is also important to ensure proper administration, but addressing the misconception about the medication's purpose is the priority in this scenario. Offering to apply a new patch would not address the client's pain as scopolamine is not meant for pain relief. Advising the client that the effects have worn off is inaccurate because the medication is not used for pain management.

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