HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client reports having insomnia. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for the nurse to recommend?
- A. Exercise 1 hour before bedtime.
- B. Eat a light carbohydrate snack before bedtime.
- C. Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime.
- D. Take a 30-minute nap daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Eating a light carbohydrate snack before bedtime is a suitable intervention for insomnia because it can help stabilize blood sugar levels and promote sleep. Exercising close to bedtime may actually disrupt sleep patterns due to increased alertness and body temperature. Drinking hot cocoa before bedtime, which contains caffeine, may interfere with falling asleep. Taking a nap during the day can make it harder to fall asleep at night and may worsen insomnia. Therefore, the best recommendation among the choices provided is to eat a light carbohydrate snack before bedtime.
2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Reassure the client that this is not a normal finding.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Document the finding in the client’s chart.
- D. Encourage the client to seek medical attention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. Black, tarry stools can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication that requires urgent medical evaluation and intervention. This finding should not be dismissed or considered normal without further assessment. Option A is incorrect because black, tarry stools are not a normal finding and may signify a significant health issue. Option C is incorrect as immediate action is needed rather than just documenting the finding. Option D is not the best choice as it simply suggests seeking medical attention without emphasizing the urgency of the situation. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management of potential gastrointestinal bleeding.
3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Loss of reflexes in the legs
- B. Decreased peripheral sensation
- C. Respiratory distress
- D. Muscle weakness in the arms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory distress is the most concerning finding as it can indicate progression to respiratory failure, which is a life-threatening complication. Loss of reflexes in the legs and muscle weakness in the arms are common manifestations of the condition but may not be as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Decreased peripheral sensation is also a common symptom but is not as critical as respiratory distress in terms of immediate patient safety and management.
4. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.
5. A client asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. They allow the court to overrule an adult client's refusal of medical treatment.
- B. They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness.
- C. They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.
- D. They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client's condition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Advance directives specify the type of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or avoid in the event of a serious illness. Choice A is incorrect because advance directives do not allow the court to overrule a client's refusal of medical treatment; they empower the client to make their own healthcare decisions. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives do not permit a client to withhold medical information; they provide guidance on the client's treatment preferences. Choice D is incorrect because advance directives do not specifically address the actions of health care personnel in the emergency department; they focus on the client's treatment preferences in general.
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