Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

• A. Milk
• B. Apples
• C. Carrots
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

2. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.

3. The nurse is teaching a client how to collect a sputum specimen. Which steps should the nurse instruct the client to follow when collecting sputum?

• A. Breathe deeply, followed by swallowing.
• B. Breathe deeply, followed by spitting into a cup.
• C. Breathe deeply, followed by coughing up the sputum.
• D. Breathe deeply, followed by clearing the throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to breathe deeply followed by coughing up the sputum. This method ensures that the specimen is collected from the lower respiratory tract and is not contaminated by saliva. Choice A (swallowing) does not result in sputum collection, while choice B (spitting into a cup) may lead to saliva contamination. Choice D (clearing the throat) is not an effective way to collect sputum as it may involve getting rid of saliva, not sputum.

4. What are early signs of varicella disease?

• A. High fever over 101°F (38.3°C)
• B. General malaise
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Crusty sores

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct early sign of varicella disease is general malaise. During the prodromal period, patients may experience low-grade fever, malaise, and anorexia. Increased appetite and crusty sores are not typically early signs of varicella. The appearance of lesions occurs later in the course of the disease.

5. An older adult with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was recently admitted to the hospital with heart failure (HF). Which actions should the nurse take in providing care? (Select all that apply)

• A. Monitor electrolyte levels.
• B. Maintain pulse oximetry.
• C. Provide assistance with mobility.
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with COPD and HF, monitoring electrolyte levels is essential due to potential imbalances caused by medications or fluid shifts. Maintaining pulse oximetry is crucial to assess oxygenation status in COPD and HF. Providing assistance with mobility helps prevent deconditioning and complications. Therefore, all the actions mentioned are necessary for comprehensive care in this scenario, making option D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all important aspects of managing COPD and HF, ensuring holistic and effective care.

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