Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

• A. Milk
• B. Apples
• C. Carrots
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with warfarin. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin C
• B. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
• C. Limit intake of foods high in vitamin K
• D. Avoid dairy products

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit intake of foods high in vitamin K'. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication commonly used to treat conditions like deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods and be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin C, increasing intake of green leafy vegetables, and avoiding dairy products are not essential dietary instructions for a client on warfarin therapy for DVT.

3. When caring for a client with nephrotic syndrome, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Vital signs
• C. Level of consciousness
• D. Bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight is the most important assessment to monitor fluid balance in clients with nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, excessive protein loss leads to fluid retention and edema. Monitoring daily weight allows the nurse to assess fluid status accurately. Vital signs, while important, may not directly reflect fluid balance changes in nephrotic syndrome. Level of consciousness and bowel sounds are not typically the primary assessments for monitoring fluid balance in clients with nephrotic syndrome.

4. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

5. Based on the interpretation of this strip, what action should be implemented first?

• A. Call a code.
• B. Start CPR.
• C. Administer IV fluids.
• D. Apply oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Call a code.' In the context of ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib), immediate defibrillation is crucial. Calling a code is the first step to activating the emergency response team, including individuals trained to provide defibrillation. Starting CPR (Choice B) may be necessary but should follow defibrillation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) and applying oxygen (Choice D) are important interventions in cardiac arrest cases, but in V-Fib, the priority is defibrillation to restore normal heart rhythm.

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