Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

• A. Milk
• B. Apples
• C. Carrots
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus presents with confusion and diaphoresis. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Check the blood glucose level
• B. Administer insulin immediately
• C. Offer a high-protein snack
• D. Place the client in a supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the blood glucose level. In a client with diabetes mellitus presenting with confusion and diaphoresis, it is important to assess the blood glucose level first to determine if the symptoms are due to hypoglycemia. Administering insulin immediately (Choice B) without knowing the blood glucose level can worsen the condition if the client is hypoglycemic. Offering a high-protein snack (Choice C) is not appropriate as the severity of hypoglycemia is unknown, and placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not the priority action for these symptoms.

3. During the admission interview, an older client answers some questions inappropriately. The nurse notes that a hearing aid is in one ear. Which intervention is most helpful in assisting the client to hear the nurse’s question?

• A. Move to the client's other side.
• B. Speak louder into the client's ear with the hearing aid.
• C. Ask the client to adjust the hearing aid volume.
• D. Restate questions articulating consonants carefully.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restating questions with clear articulation is the most helpful intervention in assisting the client to hear the nurse's question. This approach ensures that the client can better understand the question, especially if there are issues with the hearing aid. Moving to the client's other side or speaking louder into the ear with the hearing aid may not effectively address the problem of clarity in communication. Asking the client to adjust the hearing aid volume assumes that the issue lies solely with the volume, while restating questions with clear articulation can help overcome various hearing difficulties.

4. The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?

• A. Nuchal rigidity
• B. Carotid bruit
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Palpable cervical lymph node

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.

5. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
• C. AV block.
• D. Ventricular tachycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

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