a client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low phosphorus diet which food should the client avoid
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1. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

2. A client who is experiencing respiratory distress is admitted with respiratory acidosis. Which pathophysiological process supports the client’s respiratory acidosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood lead to respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. The correct answer is B. In respiratory acidosis, the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood occurs due to inadequate exhalation, leading to acidosis. Choice A is incorrect as low oxygen levels are related to hypoxemia, not respiratory acidosis. Choice C is incorrect as increased bicarbonate levels would lead to alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate causing hyperventilation would actually help decrease carbon dioxide levels, not lead to respiratory acidosis.

3. The nurse is teaching a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about dietary modifications. Which food should the client avoid?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Coffee. Coffee should be avoided by clients with GERD as it can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to an increase in GERD symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are not directly associated with worsening GERD symptoms and can be included in moderation in the diet of a client with GERD.

4. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.

5. Which finding should the nurse report immediately for a client receiving a blood transfusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A temperature increase of 1.5°F (0.8°C) during a blood transfusion is a significant finding that can indicate a transfusion reaction, such as a febrile non-hemolytic reaction, which can progress to more severe reactions. It is crucial to report this immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Mild itching and rash (choice A) are common minor reactions to blood transfusions and can be managed appropriately without immediate concern. An increase in heart rate by 10 beats per minute (choice C) is within an acceptable range and may be a normal compensatory response to the transfusion. A slight headache (choice D) is a common complaint and is not typically associated with severe transfusion reactions; thus, it does not require immediate reporting compared to the temperature increase.

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