HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. Methotrexate is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is also taking aspirin. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide as to why a second medication has been added?
- A. Methotrexate slows the disease progression while aspirin controls the symptoms.
- B. Methotrexate helps to reduce the side effects of aspirin.
- C. Methotrexate has fewer harmful side effects than aspirin.
- D. Methotrexate enhances the effect of aspirin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that slows the progression of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), while aspirin helps control symptoms such as pain and inflammation. Therefore, the combination of methotrexate and aspirin is beneficial in managing RA by addressing both disease progression and symptom control. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not added to reduce the side effects of aspirin, has different side effects compared to aspirin, and does not enhance the effect of aspirin.
2. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?
- A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
- B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
- C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
- D. The medication has few side effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.
3. A client with urolithiasis is preparing for discharge after lithotripsy. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's postoperative discharge instructions?
- A. Report when hematuria becomes pink-tinged
- B. Use incentive spirometer
- C. Restrict physical activities
- D. Monitor urinary stream for a decrease in output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After lithotripsy, monitoring the urinary stream for a decrease in output is essential to identify any potential complications such as urinary retention or obstruction. Reporting pink-tinged hematuria is important, but monitoring the urinary stream for a decrease in output takes precedence as it directly assesses renal function and potential complications. Using an incentive spirometer is not directly related to post-lithotripsy care. Restricting physical activities may be necessary initially but is not the priority compared to monitoring urinary output.
4. A client with partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?
- A. Apply a sterile dressing to the wound.
- B. Administer an analgesic.
- C. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
- D. Ensure the client's nutritional needs are met.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering an analgesic before whirlpool therapy is the priority intervention in this scenario. Whirlpool therapy for debridement can be painful for the client with partial-thickness burns. Administering an analgesic before the procedure helps manage pain during the debridement process, ensuring the client's comfort. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may be necessary after the whirlpool therapy but is not the immediate pre-transport intervention. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice C) and ensuring nutritional needs are met (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not specifically related to preparing the client for whirlpool therapy.
5. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?
- A. The epinephrine given causes nausea and vomiting.
- B. The child is being hydrated with IV fluids.
- C. The child is not hungry.
- D. The child's rapid respirations pose a risk for aspiration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.
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