HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which meal is most appropriate for this client?
- A. Spaghetti and meatballs
- B. Chicken salad sandwich
- C. Steak and potatoes
- D. Hamburger and fries
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A chicken salad sandwich (B) is the most appropriate choice as it is easy to eat on the go, which is important for a client in the manic phase who may have difficulty sitting still for a meal. Spaghetti and meatballs (A) and steak and potatoes (C) require more time and effort to eat, which may be challenging for a client experiencing mania. While hamburger and fries (D) could be an option, a chicken salad sandwich is a healthier and more manageable choice, considering the client's potential hyperactive state.
2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Allow the client to engage in compulsive behaviors as a way to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to ignore the compulsive behaviors.
- C. Help the client to understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors.
- D. Work with the client to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with OCD is to work with them to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors. This approach helps the client manage their condition effectively without causing undue distress. Allowing the client to engage in compulsive behaviors can reinforce the disorder rather than alleviate it. Encouraging the client to ignore compulsive behaviors does not address the core issue of OCD. While helping the client understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors can be beneficial, actively working to reduce these behaviors is more crucial in the treatment of OCD.
3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly washes her hands throughout the day. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to talk about the underlying fears.
- C. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.
- D. Schedule a time for the client to perform the ritual.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the underlying fears is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly washes her hands. By discussing the fears, the client can gain insight into the behavior and work towards reducing the compulsion. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to continue the behavior can perpetuate the OCD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as restricting access to soap and water can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling a time for the client to perform the ritual does not address the underlying fears driving the behavior.
4. A female client with obsessive compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Explain to the client that her behavior invades the rights of the nursing staff.
- B. Ask the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care.
- C. Teach the client strategies to control her obsessive compulsive behavior.
- D. Encourage the client to express her feelings regarding the upcoming procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to express her feelings can help address underlying anxieties and may reduce the need for obsessive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because it may come across as confrontational and could escalate the situation. Choice B is not the best initial action as it focuses on the behavior rather than the client's emotions. Choice C is premature without first addressing the client's emotional needs.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Depression
- C. Sun-downing syndrome
- D. Medication side effects
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.
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