Nursing Elites

1. How do you determine if the medication is effective for a client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Food diary shows increased consumption of iron-rich foods
• B. Reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue
• C. Hemoglobin level increased to 12 grams/dL
• D. Takes concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. To assess the effectiveness of medication for anemia in a client with CKD, monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial. Hemoglobin levels directly indicate the response to treatment and improvement in the condition. An increase in hemoglobin level to 12 grams/dL suggests that the medication is effectively addressing the anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased consumption of iron-rich foods, reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue, and tolerance to concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects are not direct indicators of the medication's effectiveness in treating anemia secondary to CKD.

2. A client is taking levodopa-carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurse should include which instruction when educating the client about this medication?

• A. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
• B. Take medication with food to improve absorption.
• C. Take medication at bedtime to avoid daytime drowsiness.
• D. It can cause nausea and dizziness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking levodopa-carbidopa for Parkinson's disease is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Levodopa-carbidopa should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset and improve absorption. Taking medication at bedtime is not necessary to avoid daytime drowsiness. It is crucial to prevent dehydration due to the medication's side effects. Choice B is incorrect because the medication should be taken with food, not at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food, rather than on an empty stomach, aids in absorption and reduces gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect as it states the side effects of the medication rather than providing specific instructions on its administration.

3. A client with angina pectoris has been prescribed nitroglycerin tablets prn for chest pain. Which statement by the client causes the practical nurse (PN) to clarify instructions for this client?

• A. I will take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three tablets.
• B. I should take one tablet at the onset of angina and stop activity.
• C. I need to replace nitroglycerin tablets every 3 to 6 months to maintain freshness.
• D. I should ensure that I chew the pill completely before swallowing it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin tablets should be taken at the onset of angina, and the client should stop activity and rest. One tablet should be placed under the tongue (sublingually), not chewed or swallowed. One tablet can be taken every 5 minutes, up to three doses. If pain relief not achieved after taking three pills, seek medical attention immediately. Nitroglycerin should be replaced every 3 to 6 months. Nitroglycerin pain relief should occur in 5 minutes and duration should last 30 minutes.

4. What class of laxative would the nurse recommend to a patient asking about the best way to prevent constipation?

• A. Stimulant laxatives
• B. Bulk-forming laxatives
• C. Emollient laxatives
• D. Hyperosmotic laxatives

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bulk-forming laxatives. These laxatives are recommended to prevent constipation because they work by absorbing liquid in the intestines, forming a bulky, soft stool that is easier to pass. They are safe and considered the most natural option. Stimulant laxatives (choice A) work by promoting bowel movements through intestinal contractions and are more suitable for treating occasional constipation rather than preventing it. Emollient laxatives (choice C) soften the stool by increasing the incorporation of water into the feces and are more suitable for patients who need to avoid straining during defecation. Hyperosmotic laxatives (choice D) work by drawing water into the intestine through osmosis and are typically used for more severe cases of constipation, not for prevention.

5. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Bone marrow suppression
• B. Increased risk of infection
• C. Liver toxicity
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate, commonly used in rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, reducing the production of blood cells and increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia is crucial to detect bone marrow suppression early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while methotrexate can increase the risk of infection, liver toxicity, and kidney issues, the primary concern and most significant adverse effect to monitor for is bone marrow suppression due to its impact on blood cell production.

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