a client is prescribed metformin for the management of type 2 diabetes what is the primary action of this medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Exam 1

1. A client is prescribed metformin for the management of type 2 diabetes. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin primarily works by reducing the production of glucose in the liver (hepatic glucose production) and by improving insulin sensitivity in various tissues. Choice A is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas. Choice B is incorrect as metformin increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues, not just muscle cells. Choice D is incorrect as metformin does not delay glucose absorption from the intestines.

2. A client reports feeling anxious and having trouble sleeping lately. What non-pharmacological intervention should the nurse suggest first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct non-pharmacological intervention the nurse should suggest first for a client experiencing anxiety and sleep issues is practicing relaxation techniques before bed. Relaxation techniques like deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, or mindfulness meditation can help reduce anxiety levels and promote better sleep naturally. Starting an exercise program (Choice A) can be beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for anxiety and sleep problems. Keeping a sleep diary (Choice B) can help identify patterns but does not directly address anxiety. Using sleep-inducing medications (Choice D) should be considered only after non-pharmacological interventions have been tried.

3. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a 1.2mL injection to a 4-year-old. Which is the best site to administer an IM injection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Vastus Lateralis. The vastus lateralis site is recommended for IM injections in small children due to its large muscle mass, making it suitable for injections in pediatric patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The radial artery is not a site for IM injections; it is a site for arterial puncture. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential risks, such as injury to the sciatic nerve. The rectus femoris is not typically used for IM injections in children, as other sites like the vastus lateralis are more commonly preferred.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. What is the correct angle of insertion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct angle of insertion for a subcutaneous injection, such as heparin, is 45 degrees. This angle is appropriate as it helps to ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Option A (15 degrees) is too shallow for a subcutaneous injection and may result in the medication being deposited into the muscle. Option B (30 degrees) is also too shallow for subcutaneous injections. Option D (90 degrees) is used for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous injections.

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