Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving metronidazole for Clostridium difficile pseudomembranous colitis. Which information should the nurse include in this client's medication teaching plan?

• A. Drink adequate water daily
• B. Take with food
• C. Avoid alcohol consumption
• D. Store medication in the refrigerator

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct information to include in the medication teaching plan for a client receiving metronidazole for Clostridium difficile pseudomembranous colitis is to avoid alcohol consumption. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to abstain from alcohol while taking this medication to prevent adverse effects and ensure treatment effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking adequate water daily is a general health recommendation but not specific to metronidazole use. Taking with food is not necessary for metronidazole, and in fact, it is recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Storing the medication in the refrigerator is also incorrect, as metronidazole should be stored at room temperature.

2. A client with multiple sclerosis starts a new prescription, baclofen, to control muscle spasticity. Three days later, the client calls the clinic nurse and reports feeling fatigued and dizzy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid hazardous activities until symptoms subside
• B. Contact the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Continue taking the medication every day
• D. Stop taking the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to avoid hazardous activities until the symptoms of fatigue and dizziness subside. These side effects can impair the client's ability to engage in activities that require alertness and coordination, posing a risk for accidents. Contacting the healthcare provider immediately may not be necessary unless the symptoms worsen or persist. Continuing to take the medication every day without addressing the side effects can lead to further complications. Stopping the medication abruptly without healthcare provider guidance can also be risky and may not be necessary if the symptoms improve with time.

3. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
• B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
• C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
• D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.

4. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed sertraline. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is known to commonly cause gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. It is recommended for clients to take sertraline with food to help minimize this potential side effect. Choice B, Drowsiness, is less commonly associated with sertraline use. Insomnia, choice C, is not a typical side effect of sertraline; in fact, it may help improve sleep in some individuals. Headache, choice D, is also not a common side effect of sertraline.

5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache. Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, can cause headache as a potential side effect. Headache is important to monitor as it may indicate adverse effects or complications that need attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and dizziness are not commonly associated with dabigatran use.

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