Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

2. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed hydroxyzine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Hydroxyzine is known to cause drowsiness, so clients should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, nausea, and headache are not commonly associated with hydroxyzine use. It is crucial for the client to be aware of the potential drowsiness to ensure their safety and well-being while taking this medication.

3. A client with a productive cough and fever has been diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia and is being admitted to the unit from the emergency room. Which intervention should the practical nurse ensure has been done prior to the administration of antibiotics?

• A. Sputum specimen
• B. Set of vital signs
• C. Electrocardiogram
• D. Glucometer check

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating antibiotic therapy in a client with bacterial pneumonia, obtaining a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is essential. This helps identify the specific bacteria causing the infection and guides the selection of the most effective antibiotic treatment.

4. Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving aspirin 600mg po QID?

• A. Monitor temperature q4h
• B. Use 10-point pain scale to assess pain
• C. Assess for dyspepsia and nausea
• D. Check stool for occult blood

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the stool for occult blood when caring for a client receiving aspirin 600mg po QID. Aspirin can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, and checking for occult blood in the stool is essential to monitor for this serious adverse effect. Monitoring temperature, assessing pain, and checking for dyspepsia and nausea are important interventions but not as critical as monitoring for gastrointestinal bleeding when a client is receiving aspirin.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Weight gain
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.

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