HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.
2. During a home visit for a family with a new baby, what should the nurse assess first?
- A. feeding patterns
- B. sleeping arrangements
- C. support system
- D. immunization status
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing feeding patterns is the priority during a home visit for a family with a new baby because it is crucial for the health and growth of the newborn. By evaluating the feeding patterns, the nurse can ensure that the baby is receiving adequate nutrition and address any feeding issues promptly. While sleeping arrangements, support system, and immunization status are important aspects to assess during a home visit, they are not as critical as ensuring the newborn's nutritional needs are being met.
3. A LPN/LVN is performing a follow-up teaching session with a client discharged 1 month ago. The client is taking fluoxetine (Prozac). What information would be important for the nurse to obtain during this client visit regarding the side effects of the medication?
- A. Cardiovascular symptoms
- B. Gastrointestinal dysfunctions
- C. Problems with mouth dryness
- D. Problems with excessive sweating
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Gastrointestinal dysfunctions.' Fluoxetine commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, diarrhea, or constipation. These symptoms can significantly impact the client's quality of life and adherence to the medication regimen. Monitoring gastrointestinal issues is crucial for the nurse to ensure the client's well-being and optimize treatment outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cardiovascular symptoms, problems with mouth dryness, and problems with excessive sweating are not typically associated with fluoxetine use and are less likely to be a focus of concern during this client visit.
4. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Offer information about the procedure steps
- B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
- C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
- D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.
5. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?
- A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
- B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
- C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
- D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.