Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of escitalopram is drowsiness. Escitalopram is known to cause sedation, so clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness, such as driving, until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are also common side effects of various medications but are not specifically associated with escitalopram.

2. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?

• A. Difficulty starting urination
• B. Nosebleeds
• C. Muscle cramps
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. The nurse should assess the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Cough
• D. Palpitations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic medications like ipratropium can lead to decreased salivary flow, resulting in dry mouth. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because nausea, cough, and palpitations are not commonly associated with ipratropium use.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient with short-term persistent diarrhea. Which class of medication would the nurse anticipate giving?

• A. Lubricants
• B. Probiotics
• C. Adsorbents
• D. Anticholinergics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Probiotics are the correct choice in this scenario as they help restore normal gut flora, which can be effective in treating diarrhea by promoting a healthy balance of bacteria in the intestines. Lubricants are used to ease bowel movements and are not indicated for treating diarrhea. Adsorbents work by binding to toxins in the gut, which is not the primary mechanism needed for treating diarrhea. Anticholinergics are more commonly used for conditions like overactive bladder and not for short-term persistent diarrhea.

5. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hair loss
• C. Insomnia
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential adverse effect. Quetiapine is known to commonly cause weight gain, which can have implications for the client's overall health. Regular monitoring of weight can help in early detection and management of this side effect.

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