HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed ziprasidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. QT prolongation
- B. Weight gain
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: QT prolongation. Ziprasidone is known to cause QT prolongation, which can potentially lead to serious cardiac issues. Monitoring the client's ECG is crucial to detect any changes and prevent adverse effects related to QT interval prolongation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and increased appetite are not commonly associated with ziprasidone. While weight gain can be a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not a prominent side effect of ziprasidone. Dry mouth and increased appetite are also not typically linked to ziprasidone use.
2. When caring for a client at the end of life, which statement by the client’s partner reflects effective coping?
- A. I am relying on support from our family during this time.
- B. I am feeling overwhelmed but don’t want to talk about it.
- C. I am managing everything on my own without help.
- D. I prefer to stay alone with my partner.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am relying on support from our family during this time.' When a client is at the end of life, relying on support from family can be an effective coping mechanism. It allows the partner to share the emotional burden, seek comfort, and prevent feelings of isolation. Choice B reflects a reluctance to express feelings, which can hinder coping mechanisms by internalizing stress. Choice C suggests handling everything alone, which can lead to burnout and emotional strain due to the overwhelming responsibilities. Choice D, preferring to stay alone with the partner, may limit access to external support that could provide additional emotional and practical assistance during this challenging time, making it a less effective coping strategy.
3. A 13-year-old girl, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?
- A. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class
- B. Incorrectly drew up and administered too much insulin
- C. Was not hungry, so she skipped eating lunch
- D. Has had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incorrect insulin administration is a common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering too much insulin can lead to uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where the body starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to directly cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Eating an extra peanut butter sandwich, skipping lunch, or having a cold and ear infection would not directly lead to the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.
4. A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?
- A. Right lower quadrant pain
- B. Left lower quadrant pain
- C. Rebound tenderness
- D. Epigastric pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.
5. When explaining the fecal occult blood testing procedure to a client, which of the following information should be included?
- A. Eating more protein is not necessary before testing.
- B. Multiple stool specimens may be required for testing.
- C. A red color change indicates a positive test.
- D. The specimen must not be contaminated with urine.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When performing fecal occult blood testing, it is crucial to inform the client that the specimen must not be contaminated with urine to prevent false results. Choices A and B are incorrect because eating more protein is not required before testing, and multiple stool specimens may be necessary for accurate results, respectively. Additionally, regarding choice C, a red color change, not blue, indicates a positive test result, making it an incorrect option.