Nursing Elites

1. Before administering the prescribed morphine sulfate to a client post-op following laparotomy who reports pain and dry mouth, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Measure the client's vital signs.
• B. Assess the client's pain level.
• C. Verify the morphine order with another nurse.
• D. Check the client's last dose of morphine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering morphine sulfate, it is crucial to measure the client's vital signs to ensure that the client is stable and safe to receive the medication. This step helps identify any contraindications or abnormalities that could affect the administration of morphine. Assessing the client's pain level (choice B) is important, but ensuring the client's physiological stability takes precedence. Verifying the morphine order with another nurse (choice C) and checking the client's last dose of morphine (choice D) are important steps but are not the priority before administering the medication.

2. A client with heart failure and a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide is receiving discharge teaching about safety considerations from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I will take a hot bath before going to bed.”
• B. “I will take my new medication in the evening.”
• C. “I will leave a light on in my bathroom at night.”
• D. “I will weigh myself once weekly.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Leaving a light on in the bathroom at night is important for an older adult with heart failure who is taking hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic that can cause nocturia. This safety measure helps prevent falls during nighttime bathroom visits. Option A is incorrect because taking a hot bath before bed can increase the risk of falls due to potential dizziness. Option B does not directly relate to safety considerations but rather the timing of medication administration. Option D, weighing oneself once weekly, is important for monitoring fluid retention but does not address safety concerns related to nocturia and falls.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a wound infection. Which type of dressing is most appropriate to use to promote healing by secondary intention?

• A. Dry gauze dressing
• B. Wet-to-dry dressing
• C. Transparent film dressing
• D. Hydrocolloid dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrocolloid dressings are ideal for promoting healing by secondary intention in wound infections. These dressings create a moist environment that supports autolytic debridement and facilitates the healing process. Dry gauze dressings (Option A) may lead to adherence, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the wound bed. Wet-to-dry dressings (Option B) are primarily used for mechanical debridement and can be painful during dressing changes. Transparent film dressings (Option C) are more suitable for superficial wounds with minimal exudate and are not typically used for wound infections requiring healing by secondary intention.

4. A client has acute renal failure. Which of the following assessments provides the most accurate measure of the client's fluid status?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Intake and output
• C. Urine specific gravity
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight is the most accurate measure of fluid status in a client with acute renal failure. Fluctuations in weight reflect changes in body fluid volume, including both fluid retention or loss. Intake and output, while important, may not always accurately reflect overall fluid status as it does not account for insensible losses. Urine specific gravity can provide information on urine concentration but does not offer a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid status. Peripheral edema, although a sign of fluid retention, is a more subjective assessment and may not always accurately reflect the client's fluid status like daily weight monitoring does.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Pain level of 8/10
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F
• D. Saturated abdominal dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.

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